- Joined
- May 22, 2012
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- 104,378
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- Location
- Uhland, Texas
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- Political Leaning
- Libertarian
Well, I don't know where you studied law, but my understanding is if one person has a gun, and the other person does not, then the person without the gun is facing imminent death or serious bodily harm, while the person with the gun...is not.
Point two: If the person with the GUN (who is NOT a police officer) approaches a person without a gun, that unarmed person having a reasonable presumption of imminent death or serious bodily harm has a right to act in his own self-defense.
Point three: If the intial aggressor (the guy with the GUN) fails to announce his intention to retreat, and fails to try to retreat once the person without the gun starts to defend himself, he loses the right to claim self-defense.
Point four: If the initial aggressor (the guy with the GUN) then shoots and kills the the guy without the gun, then he is correctly answerable to a charge of homicide without the right to claim self-defense.
This is all in conformance with the quoted law. Where are you confused by my answer?
Nonsense! What evidence do you have that GZ ever used the gun to initiate aggression? I carry a concealed rape tool and have approached many women - is that attemped rape? Simply possessing a gun is not an act of aggression.