Okay, she was 22 and he was 16. Do you define that as pedophilia, or isn't it better described as unlawful sexual intercourse with a minor?
If she was one day over 18, and him one day under 18, you going to call that pedophilia too? In some states her being 22 and him 16 is within a range where this while breaking a statutory law, may not be considered a sex offense---as long is there is no force or coercion.. And still in some states, it may be considered a sex offense, if the older person is a person of authority, which may apply here. So, if you actually believe there has been social and legal consistency on the subject of age of consent here in the USA, then you haven't bothered to look into the history of it. Before the Victorian age, many states had age of consent at 10-12 years old. But laws and morals do change.
Why don't you look into that, if you think I'm making it up.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ages_of_consent_in_the_United_States
I'm not advocating for anyone to have sex with minors. I'm just pointing out that there has never been a cut and dry standard for this in our history, or across all jurisdictions.
Now, do you think we can have an adult conversation on this subject, without you accusing me of being pro pedophilia?