Lets be honest, my source was a paper based on consumption smoothing, and was peer reviewed and cited multiple times in other peer reviewed papers.
Which means exactly nothing. Peer reviewed papers are theories reviewed by theorists with no real world results. Thus it's a pseudo-intellectual circle jerk. Where's the proof it is correct? Oh yeah, it's theory, there is none.
Instead of identifying what parts of the study apply to your "so called" critique, you post a ridiculous blog post as refutation.
Yeah, and the blog post was about as relevant since it was equally based in theoretical opinion, but I explained that. My critique stands.
Therefore you really have no argument nor substantial objection to the source except for disagreeing with it for the sake of retracting your original argument. If you could have displayed any bit of irrelevance in the source, you would have done so days ago. Failure to do so speaks volumes and has been noted.
Except that I explained how basic economics works as well as a touch of macro, and what the "empirical" study was lacking, you then decided to attack the messenger without actually refuting the message. But it doesn't matter to me as it's obvious that report was full of ****.
Wait wait wait, because you cannot back up your original statement, middle and lower wealth classes are not much of a factor in the consumer market?!?!?! Those who have a positive savings rate, who previously had a negative to zero rate of savings, are not much of a factor to begin with, while consumer demand is shown to be relatively low. Priceless!
Ah, appeal to ridicule. Yet another fallacy. I explained in pretty painstaking detail what the problem with your source is and in a way that was logical, yet you defer to a slight attack on the message. Not my fault you couldn't follow the logic.
Yeah, I know. I've been laughing the whole time.
You make a statement without being able to adequately back it up. Again, if you could, you would have done so days ago.
WOW. You really didn't see the backing huh. Might I suggest taking a few econ classes. My arguments are not only textbook but real world proven.
Actually, your argument has been about a clear as quick sand. Now that you are trapped behind an embarrassing statement that is dead wrong (the wealthy are more prone to reign in spending during cyclical contractions), you go off the deep end in claiming the rest of the consumer market does not matter.
LOL, embarrasing? Please, your source has been questioned and you go on blathering about with an appeal to ridicule, among other fallacies as appeal to authority(one that had to declare itself nonotheless, HA) and then assert that I have humiliated myself. Geez, I guess it's so then. LOL!
For future reference, it would be more beneficial (and constructive) to argue under the basis of reality rather than ideology.
And when you start to do that I'll take your debate seriously, until then I'll just continue to try to explain to you how they work. Actually I'll get back to you when you land a valid point. Again, you are showing that you've lost with all of these nice fallacies you've thrown around.
I then throw you a bone by exposing you to Hauser's Law (a pillar for the low tax argument), you cite "statistical failure" on the basis of a news paper article about the said phenomena.
*snicker* A law that was written open ended so as the method to acquire the agregate was not a factor, yeah, that isn't an economic law that is a talking point. Good try though. ROFL. 50 year average! HAHAHAHAHAHAHA! I mean, really!? HAHAHAHAHAHA. Dude, seriously you can't have fallen for that.
As for the bold (for the third time); if you could prove it, you would have done so days ago. Sorry LMR, your opinion does not cut it.
Go read an econ book then. It's those knuckleheads ****up and your assertation that those jokers had a good point, not mine. I already did that homework while I was in college but feel free to find something better than a "peer review" of likeminded Keynsian psuedo economists to prove yours.