So, you moved the goal posts! I'm shocked, I tell you.... :roll:
so you move the discussion into foreigners and foreign corporation ,and have the gall to say i'm moving goalposts?....interesting.
That's correct, they are under current law, but that's not the question being debated. And even the "independent" stuff is a violation of their rights to free speech if money is in fact speech. So the question concedes a limit, but you're insisting that there can be no limits on our first amendment rights - it's just false.
aye, it's current law, and it was hte law before the unconstitutional McCain fiengold was passed in 2002.
of course money is speech, it can be no other way.... 1st,everything related to speech costs money, so there is no separating money from speech there.... spending money on electioneering, issues, or whatever, is most definitely a politcal expression... IE, politcal speech.
SCOTUS has called it correct twice.
you're talking about limiting foreigners and saying its' somehow a limit on "our" speech?...shouldn't you be arguing it's a limit on "their" speech?... but yes, it's correct there are rational limits, especailly when we talking about matters of national sovereignty.
Why is GE any different than Bank of China or Saudi Aramco? GE as an entity doesn't give a flying **** about clean air or water, U.S. jobs, pay, the poor, etc. except as those things relate to their bottom line which is the same analysis obviously foreign corps make. And if we prohibit "GE" from using it's multi-$billion balance sheet to influence elections, every US resident working for GE still has their free speech rights intact. Their CEO can still go on any show, etc. and speak about anything he wants.
why is GE different?... because it's an American corporation... duh.
and i would suggest that contribution limits serve the purpose pf mitigating corruption ( IE, quid pro quo bribery)...but banning associations from spending money on political speech that is independent of campaigns or parties is , no matter how you slice it, a violation of the 1st amendment...
and really... if you can ban or limit politcal speech form associations, under what premise can individuals be believed to have protected speech at all?... you claim all the employees at a corporation still have their free speech rights, but you've just taken those rights and placed them in severe jeopardy and vacated any rationale you would have to retain those rights for individuals...you would have completely undermined the entire concept of free speech.
And, again, when you mention national security/sovereignty you're again admitting that OF COURSE we can and do limit political speech, and the question is when (not if) it's appropriate.
that's true as well....
I haven't really said anything about unlimited rights... that's an inference you're making.
national sovereignty and disallowing a foreign country from electioneering is a well grounded rationale to ban speech...and we've yet to see a well grounded rationale for banning Americans politcal speech.