• Please read the Announcement concerning missing posts from 10/8/25-10/15/25.
  • This is a political forum that is non-biased/non-partisan and treats every person's position on topics equally. This debate forum is not aligned to any political party. In today's politics, many ideas are split between and even within all the political parties. Often we find ourselves agreeing on one platform but some topics break our mold. We are here to discuss them in a civil political debate. If this is your first visit to our political forums, be sure to check out the RULES. Registering for debate politics is necessary before posting. Register today to participate - it's free!

Should men have a right to damage fetus with substances and other ways?

Should a man have a right to damage fetus with substances and in other ways?

  • Yes

    Votes: 3 33.3%
  • No

    Votes: 6 66.7%

  • Total voters
    9
:lamo So many ProLife men arguing that it is "inconclusive" that male sperm has anything to do with a fetus or child. I understand their logic. The Bible PROVES that a man is not necessary for pregnancy or a child in the birth of Jesus. The Bible does say there are no other immaculate conceptions and God made the whole universe merely by conceiving of it. Therefore, it is entirely possible that rarely - if ever - is a man's sperm involved in anyway in a pregnancy. Pregnancies are not from the female egg being "fertilized." That doesn't happen in humans, only in animals. Rather, for humans it is instead by "conception" of a baby.

Thus, God in the miracle of creation just "conceives" the child in the woman for which life begins at conception of a child by God. ProLife men got pretty convincing defense to exclusion from all their furious moral demands they make at women in such a claim of "life begins at conception" and NOT at fertilization by sperm. :lamo

Translation: my silly little thread has been shredded from the beginning, and, since I cannot actually respond to what's being said, it's time to dance around like the court jester and spout nonsense. :D
 
mutated sperm=damaged sperm.

Mutatations are usually genetic. Damaged sperm caused from toxins is not genetic or a mutation. Its just sperm damage and can sometimes be remedied by simply removing the toxin or taking precautions when handling.

Regardless of what label you want to toss in there the arguments still stand.
You were trying to change my arguement. Thats pretty low even for you, isn't it?

What you are citing is not indicating "toxins can cause damaged sperm which can cause birth defects". It indicates there is a correlation between the type of work the father is involved in and particular corresponding birth defects. What the underlying causes for this are, and what series of mechanisms they operate through, isn't known though.
Have you ever heard the phrase "absense of evidence is not evidence of absense"? If you knew that a substance in the work place could possibly make people sick and cause birth defects but didn't know how or why, would you wait until the evidence was conclusive and people were actually dying before making any changes? I think that would be pretty stupid and irresponsible if you did. Especially if you knew there was a strong correlation.

you are making claims beyond that correlation and asserting that the cause and underlying mechanism is known: "damaged sperm". When it could just as well be something like cross contamination through clothing or skin residue.
I never said the underlying mechanism was known nor do I think it has to be in order to know that a substance can harm you. For instance, there isn't any conclusive evidence that bug spray will kill you or cause birth defects...only that it can if your exposed to it long enough. And I don't know the underlying mechanisms in lead that can causes brain damage, especially in children...I only know that it can because I've seen the observable evidence. So the notion that you have to wait for conclusive causal evidence and show signs of sickness before taking precautions or actively doing anything to mitigate the possible damage is nonsense.
 
Mutatations are usually genetic. Damaged sperm caused from toxins is not genetic or a mutation. Its just sperm damage and can sometimes be remedied by simply removing the toxin or taking precautions when handling.

You were trying to change my arguement. Thats pretty low even for you, isn't it?

Have you ever heard the phrase "absense of evidence is not evidence of absense"? If you knew that a substance in the work place could possibly make people sick and cause birth defects but didn't know how or why, would you wait until the evidence was conclusive and people were actually dying before making any changes? I think that would be pretty stupid and irresponsible if you did. Especially if you knew there was a strong correlation.

I never said the underlying mechanism was known nor do I think it has to be in order to know that a substance can harm you. For instance, there isn't any conclusive evidence that bug spray will kill you or cause birth defects...only that it can if your exposed to it long enough. And I don't know the underlying mechanisms in lead that can causes brain damage, especially in children...I only know that it can because I've seen the observable evidence. So the notion that you have to wait for conclusive causal evidence and show signs of sickness before taking precautions or actively doing anything to mitigate the possible damage is nonsense.

Lol, so you can't site any "conclusive causal evidence", but you advocate that men go to jail if a baby is born with a disability. ****ing brilliant.
 
Mutatations are usually genetic. Damaged sperm caused from toxins is not genetic or a mutation. Its just sperm damage and can sometimes be remedied by simply removing the toxin or taking precautions when handling.

1) As I just pointed out, regardless if you want to define them as "mutated" or "damaged" the same issues exist with your argument: that it's not supported by your actual citations

2) the sources you cited specifically mention 'mutated" sperm

from the NYT article "The new research, much of it in early stages, suggests that certain substances can cause genetic mutations or other alterations in sperm that lead to permanent defects in children."

Have you ever heard the phrase "absense of evidence is not evidence of absense"?

Yes, I am very familier with the phrase. Which is why I made no claim about this being impossible. What I did, correctly, was point out your sources do not support your claim that this *IS* happening. What they indicate is that this *MAY* be happening, and that research is currently investigating that *HYPOTHESIS*

I never said the underlying mechanism was known nor do I think it has to be in order to know that a substance can harm you.

Yes you have. You have continually asserted that it was based on changes to the sperm and it's effect on the developing fetus
 
But that isn't their premise, that is "your" premise.
Stop misrepresenting my arguement.

On the subject they write "Hazardous chemicals ***may*** collect in the epididymis, seminal vesicles, or prostate. These chemicals may kill the sperm, change the way in which they swim, or attach to the sperm and be carried to the egg or the unborn child.".
And then it goes on to say that some cancer treatments are KNOWN to cause damage suggesting that some toxins in the workplace may do the same. Why is that so difficult for you to understand?

" Radiation or chemicals *may* cause changes or breaks in the DNA. If the sperm's DNA is damaged, it *may* not be able to fertilize an egg; or if it does fertilize an egg, it *may* affect the development of the fetus. "

"If a damaged sperm does fertilize an egg, the egg *might* not develop properly, causing a miscarriage or a possible health problem in the baby. If a reproductive hazard is carried in the semen, the fetus *might* be exposed within the uterus, possibly leading to problems with the pregnancy or with the health of the baby after it is born."

Because evidence is currently inconclusive.
Yes, yes, its inconclusive because toxins aren't going to effect everyone or in the same way hence the words "might" and "may". But that doesn't mean it won't.
 
But that doesn't mean it won't.

No one said they will not damage sperm. What was challenged was your assertion that it is damaging sperm and that this damage is causing birth defects.


Yes, yes, its inconclusive because toxins aren't going to effect everyone or in the same way

No, inconclusive in that it's still only a working hypothesis.
 
Lol, so you can't site any "conclusive causal evidence", but you advocate that men go to jail if a baby is born with a disability. ****ing brilliant.
If a scientific theory has to be falsifable then how can it be conclusive?

And no, I"m not advocating men go to jail if a baby is born with a disability....I'm advocating they take responsibilty for the quality of their sperm before they impregnate women to lower the risk of birth defects. You'd think I was asking them to castrate themselves to even suggest such a thing. lol
 
What difference does it make? And the prosecutions have been based upon birth defects for which the cause MY have been the woman's substance abuse - before and after pregnant.

I gather you are alluding to prolifer's claiming that all pregnancies are the result of immaculate conception so anything that happens before the woman is pregnant never happened at all. Just on-God's-will, ie God conceiving a child in the woman, she is pregnant and therefore actually no man was even involved. Just God and the woman.

Who posted that?!? ***shakes head***

Is the "MY" supposed to be "MIGHT"? And I am also guessing that "before and after pregnant" is supposed to be "before and after getting pregnant"?

It makes a big difference. If the female's actions are only viewed as those with take a direct effect upon the ZEF in the womb and not those that affect the egg, then there is no male equivalent to compare it to. If the legal action is being taken based on damage to the egg then the male equivalent of damage to the sperm is indeed possible. There is nothing in my argument that has anything to do with the mechanics of conception. It's a simple matter of whether the damage is before or after the conception. Now if the evidence can be produced that shows that a male can be exposed to a substance and then somehow transfer said substance to the ZEF via some interaction with the female then you have a comparable action
 
Oh so you think that because they don't know enough about how "workplace hazards effect sperm chromozones"....even though in the same paragraph they say "some cancer treatments are KNOWN to cause such damage"....that somehow negates their entire premise that toxins can cause damaged sperm which can cause birth defects? Really? :roll:

DERP! I copied that FROM your own link. :doh
 
1) As I just pointed out, regardless if you want to define them as "mutated" or "damaged" the same issues exist with your argument: that it's not supported by your actual citations.

...2) the sources you cited specifically mention 'mutated" sperm

from the NYT article "The new research, much of it in early stages, suggests that certain substances can cause genetic mutations or other alterations in sperm that lead to permanent defects in children."
Tautology is so annoying. I deliberatly didn't say "mutation" because I didn't want to get into an arguement about genetics and because that isn't what this topic is about. And now you're confusing "supported" with "conclusive" as if they meant the same...they don't. For example, the theory of gravity isn't "conclusive" but it is "supported" by hundreds of years of observable evidence. Toxins causing damaged sperm and birth defects isn't conclusive either but the theory IS supported by the observable evidence.

Yes, I am very familier with the phrase. Which is why I made no claim about this being impossible.
Instead, you were claiming the theory is invalid because it's not conclusive. Evidence of absense is not absence of evidence.

What I did, correctly, was point out your sources do not support your claim that this *IS* happening. What they indicate is that this *MAY* be happening, and that research is currently investigating that *HYPOTHESIS*
If you're so smart then why don't you understand the difference between "supportive" and "conclusive" and a scientific theory and a hypothesis? Also, since I don't recall saying "IS" happening, why don't you show me exactly where I said it.

Hypotheses non fingo.

The topic we're discussing is not a hypothesis, its a scientific theory that's supported by observable evidence. No scientific theory *IS* conclusive, so thats why I don't believe I said it "IS" happening.

FYI....

"A hypothesis attempts to answer questions by putting forth a plausible explanation that has yet to be rigorously tested. A theory, on the other hand, has already undergone extensive testing by various scientists and is generally accepted as being an accurate explanation of an observation. This doesn’t mean the theory is correct; only that current testing has not yet been able to disprove it, and the evidence as it is understood, appears to support it....."
What is the Difference between a Theory and a Hypothesis?

See the bolded above? Theory has to be falsifiable or it's not scientific. So how can I find you conclusive scientific evidence if science has to be falsifiable? And I'm not aware of any other theories that have falsified or disproven the theory that some toxins can cause damaged sperm or that those damaged sperm can cause birth defects. But you are more than welcome to try and find one if you're so inclined.

Yes you have. You have continually asserted that it was based on changes to the sperm and it's effect on the developing fetus
Since I don't know what the underlying mechanisms are how could I continually assert they're based on changes to the sperm and developing fetuses?

mutated sperm=damaged sperm.
However,

damaged sperm =/=mutated sperm.

Regardless of what label you want to toss in there the arguments still stand.

For better clarity and communication it helps to assign their proper meanings to words like "theory", "supportive", "may", "might", mutations, damaged, etc. in a scientific context. In particular "theory" is not an insult (as in the silly saying "it's just a theory"). A theory is simply the most elaborate form of consistent scientific knowledge not yet disproved by experiment or observation. In experimental sciences, a theory can never be "proved", it can only be "disproved" by experiment and/or observation. This is precisely what makes a theory scientific.

Science is just a succession of better and better approximations. If you were to insist at all times on "the whole truth and nothing but the truth" or "conclusive evidence" in a scientific context, you'd never be able to make any meaningful statement unless quantified by a margin of error.

What you are citing is not indicating "toxins can cause damaged sperm which can cause birth defects". It indicates there is a correlation between the type of work the father is involved in and particular corresponding birth defects. What the underlying causes for this are, and what series of mechanisms they operate through, isn't known though.
Yes there is correlation but the correlation is supported with statistics, experiments, research and observations aka evidence of the underlying theory. My claim btw is a theory or arguement and perhaps it would be better if you called it that. Claim sounds so...so conclusive.

you are making claims beyond that correlation and asserting that the cause and underlying mechanism is known: "damaged sperm". When it could just as well be something like cross contamination through clothing or skin residue.
But I don't think I am making "claims" beyond that correlation. You keep saying I am, but I'm not seeing it. Yes there could be other factors as you mentioned, but I've tried to keep my arguement limited to alcohol, drugs and tobacco for the sake of this discussion. So when you start getting into toxins and hazards in the workplace of course its going to get more complicated and more confusing especially if you don't use the right words in the right context.
 
Last edited:
Who posted that?!? ***shakes head***

Is the "MY" supposed to be "MIGHT"? And I am also guessing that "before and after pregnant" is supposed to be "before and after getting pregnant"?

It makes a big difference. If the female's actions are only viewed as those with take a direct effect upon the ZEF in the womb and not those that affect the egg, then there is no male equivalent to compare it to. If the legal action is being taken based on damage to the egg then the male equivalent of damage to the sperm is indeed possible. There is nothing in my argument that has anything to do with the mechanics of conception. It's a simple matter of whether the damage is before or after the conception. Now if the evidence can be produced that shows that a male can be exposed to a substance and then somehow transfer said substance to the ZEF via some interaction with the female then you have a comparable action

I think the comparable action is the male sperm getting damaged from drugs, alcohol, tobacco use within a one month time frame prior to conception and the damaged sperm then causes defects in the fetal development, miscarriage or childhood cancers. The comparison for the woman is her doing drugs, alcohol, tobacco during the embryonic stage which can cause defects in the fetal development, miscarriage, childhood development problems.

For the man, its not a matter of transfering a substance into the fetus, it's a matter of tranfering his damaged sperm that effects fetal development. For the woman it is a matter of tranfering a substance directly to the embryo that effects fetal development. Either of these scenarios could possibly be prevented.
 
This thread is about the supposition that men+chemicals=fetus damage, which is a link that is not very well established compared to the incontrovertible damage caused by maternal substance abuse during pregnancy, which was the topic on which this mocking thread was based.
It might have started out as a mocking thread but it turns there is some validity to it worth discussing. But then your thread was little more than a mocking thread against women, was it not? You weren't telling us anything new about maternal substance abuse except to ask if women should be prosecuted for it. So this thread has the same premise that if women can be prosecuted for substance abuse during pregnancy then why not men for substance abuse if their damaged sperm was the cause of a birth defect?
 
So you know how to cut and paste, good for you.

You should just stop embarrassing yourself now. Apparently you weren't even familiar with what your own link was trying to tell you, and you went off on a ridiculous tangent. Just admit that you tried to use a dishonest argument to support your point, and you completely misrepresented your link as well.
 
It might have started out as a mocking thread but it turns there is some validity to it worth discussing. But then your thread was little more than a mocking thread against women, was it not?

What are you asking?

You weren't telling us anything new about maternal substance abuse except to ask if women should be prosecuted for it.

No, that wasn't my question in the other thread.
 
Tautology is so annoying. I deliberatly didn't say "mutation" because I didn't want to get into an arguement about genetics and because that isn't what this topic is about.

1) amazing since you probably just looked it up in the dictionary ...

2) And no one has argued about genetics. As I just pointed out, if you want to say mutation or damage, the issue with your arguments still remains the same

And now you're confusing "supported" with "conclusive" as if they meant the same...they don't.

No, I am pointing out your claims are not supported by your citations

For example, the theory of gravity isn't "conclusive" but it is "supported" by hundreds of years of observable evidence.

and this "hypothesis" isn't ...


Toxins causing damaged sperm and birth defects isn't conclusive either but the theory IS supported by the observable evidence.

It is? Then please cite some of it. because everything you posted indicates the evidence is currently inconclusive ...



Instead, you were claiming the theory is invalid because it's not conclusive. Evidence of absense is not absence of evidence.

1) you continue to confuse popular usage of theory with the scientific one

2) No, I never claimed the hypothesis was invalid. What I claimed was that evidence is currently inconclusive. Which is contrary to what you keep claiming

If you're so smart then why don't you understand the difference between "supportive" and "conclusive and a scientific theory and a hypothesis?

I do understand the difference. Which is why I keep pointing out your own sources indicate such evidence is currently inconclusive, and you have so far failed to show anything more substantial from a legitimate source ...


See the bolded above? Theory has to be falsifiable or it's not scientific. So how can I find you conclusive scientific evidence if science has to be falsifiable?

Nothing I wrote creates such a dilemma
 
Stop trying to change the subject Moot. Did you read the first paragraph of your OWN thread. It says they don't know. All of those things in your link are unproven.

No, it doesn't say that they don't know. smh
 
If women weren't so mentally incompetent and therefore morally inculpable, they would use pharmaceutical and barrier birth control and pick better copulation partners.

Why do you think so little of women that you call us mentally incompetent?

Not everyone can use pharmaceutical contraception. You should know that by now.
 
Why do you think so little of women that you call us mentally incompetent?

Not everyone can use pharmaceutical contraception. You should know that by now.

Then they can use the physical barriers--you should know that by now. As for women being mentally incompetent, that is an on-going theme of these type threads that attempt to blame men for everything as a justification for women being able to abort babies as they are all victims of the men in their lives--every single one.
 
Then they can use the physical barriers--you should know that by now. As for women being mentally incompetent, that is an on-going theme of these type threads that attempt to blame men for everything as a justification for women being able to abort babies as they are all victims of the men in their lives--every single one.

I havent seen anyone bash men in this thread.....or even blame them for "everything". And abortion has hardly been mentioned. Instead, most of us seem to be talking about preventing birth defects either by legal means or prevention.
 
Last edited:
I havent seen anyone bash men in this thread.....or even blame them for "everything". And abortion has hardly been mentioned. Instead, most of us seem to be talking about preventing birth defects either by legal means or prevention.

Oh please. This is what all these threads are about. Here is a hint: It was started in the abortion forum for a reason.
 
Oh please. This is what all these threads are about. Here is a hint: It was started in the abortion forum for a reason.

I didn't notice where it started....you know how these threads get moved around. So you come onto a thread about men and where for the most part everyone has been fairly civil and on topic and make a vile comment about women...and for no apparent reason other than you don't like "these" threads. Well, how many threads have their been about men's sperm in the abortion forum? To my knowledge this is the first one.
 
I think the comparable action is the male sperm getting damaged from drugs, alcohol, tobacco use within a one month time frame prior to conception and the damaged sperm then causes defects in the fetal development, miscarriage or childhood cancers. The comparison for the woman is her doing drugs, alcohol, tobacco during the embryonic stage which can cause defects in the fetal development, miscarriage, childhood development problems.

For the man, its not a matter of transfering a substance into the fetus, it's a matter of tranfering his damaged sperm that effects fetal development. For the woman it is a matter of tranfering a substance directly to the embryo that effects fetal development. Either of these scenarios could possibly be prevented.

Sorry I simply can't agree with you. The egg and the sperm are indeed compatible comparisons. Women and men have respective "responsibility" over either of these. But neither are comparable to the ZEF, which is comprised of both the egg and the sperm.
 
Sorry I simply can't agree with you. The egg and the sperm are indeed compatible comparisons. Women and men have respective "responsibility" over either of these. But neither are comparable to the ZEF, which is comprised of both the egg and the sperm.
I don't think you are disagreeing me if you're saying men have responsibility over their sperm.
 
Back
Top Bottom