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The question before you is, is there an implied consent to sex when a couple enters into marriage. This is intended to be in both directions, so anyone who only takes it in the direct of the woman is trolling, especially since this question also applies to same sex marriages.
Now with this question, comes the understanding that if there is such an implied consent, either party can withdraw it at any time. "not tonight, dear" is a valid withdrawal of consent. "You've pissed me off! It'll be a month before I will want sex with you" is a valid withdrawal of consent.
The question of implied consent is not supposed to indicate that either party can't withdrawal consent, but that neither party needs to seek consent each and every time for each activity. This also assumes that no other specified conditions were agreed upon. Naturally, if one says that the other has to ask prior every time and the other accepts that, sure. But outside of agreed upon conditions, does the implied consent exist?
Now with this question, comes the understanding that if there is such an implied consent, either party can withdraw it at any time. "not tonight, dear" is a valid withdrawal of consent. "You've pissed me off! It'll be a month before I will want sex with you" is a valid withdrawal of consent.
The question of implied consent is not supposed to indicate that either party can't withdrawal consent, but that neither party needs to seek consent each and every time for each activity. This also assumes that no other specified conditions were agreed upon. Naturally, if one says that the other has to ask prior every time and the other accepts that, sure. But outside of agreed upon conditions, does the implied consent exist?