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This isn't exactly accurate. The militia was defined at the time as all able bodied males from whom the state could rustle up folks to handle situations. It was distinct from the standing military. So, it's not that the States were reserved the power to have some sort of military force. The militia is the people (other than children, invalids and elderly) who are "able" to be called up. And, that's why it's the "right of the people" to keep and bear arms, because that's the militia - if there was some sort of military incursion into a state, the state government would be able to sound the alarm and folks would report with their guns.Other...
A strict interpretation of the 2nd would be good. The founders didn't think they had to enumerate the right to own a gun, everybody had a gun. What they were reserving was the states right to have a Militia. This was the way it was seen for two hundred plus years. Activist Justices saw it as a living document that now meant any yahoo who could Afford one, could have one (or more).
“I ask, Sir, what is the militia? It is the whole people. To disarm the people is the best and most effectual way to enslave them.” — Founding Father, George Mason, co-author of the Second Amendment