Slave owners, took away the rights of blacks.
Did they? Again you're conflating the RIGHT... with the MEANS TO EXERCISE THE RIGHT... now that's an interesting position given the many American blacks that were not slaves...
Of course, the problem is that not all Americans were slave owners and not all states allowed slavery; and naturally, this reality would necessarily preclude any means for 'slave owners to take away the rights of blacks'... to exist as an over arching fact. Clearly, you erroneously believe that all blacks were slaves in Colonial America, but the truth is, you've been misinformed.
First, slavery was not limited to blacks... indentured servitude was a common practice... and most indentured servants were white folks... and 'indentured' implies a willful arrangement, most indentured servants were serving well short of willingly.
Beyond that... can you explain how one can take away something that is beyond their means to touch? Slave owners are endowed by the same Creator, with the same rights as blacks, so where do they come by the authority, let alone a sound moral justification which entitles them to enslave anyone, including blacks?
Now clearly, given the finite nature of the species, slave owners did not and do not to this day, enjoy any authority beyond anyone else; and given the equity of rights, there can be no sound moral justification for enslaving others... so such would be a result of what?
It would be a function of unsound injustice, right?
Minorities, and women for that matter were not equal under the law when the Constitution was written. Thats a fact, you can't spin your way out of that one. The Constitution didn't take away their rights, but laws on the books did. And it took several SCOTUS cases, and a few amendments to the Constitution to make it where this was true.
And I doubt the College Board AP program would teach me a deceptive revision of American history, but I do think Glenn Beck would.
What laws? You're implying that minorities had no rights anywhere, as a matter of FEDERAL LAW... This is simply PREPOSTEROUS.
Was it the case in some of the respective states? You bet... But wile setting aside the entire argument of cultural conventions and mores, relevant to the respective regions, you're also setting aside the incontrovertible fact, that the principles set forth in the US Declaration of Independence ARE THE BASIS for the FEDERAL LAWS which overtly enumerated specifically, the rights of Minorities and forbade the States from enforcing laws which otherwise infringed upon those pre-existing rights and the means of those minorities to exercise THEIR PRE-EXISTING RIGHTS... rights which they ALWAYS HAD AS A RESULT OF THEIR HAVING BEEN ENDOWED AT CONCEPTION, BY THEIR CREATOR... RIGHTS WHICH ARE EQUAL TO THE INDIVIDUALS WHICH SOUGHT TO USURP THEIR MEANS TO EXERCISE THEIR RIGHTS...
You seem to want to argue that because a woman was specifically forbade from voting by a state legal code... that this meant that women did not have a right to influence their government; that women didn't have the right because government had not given them the right. When the simple fact is that the US Declaration of Independence; which is the charter of principles which set forth the foundation on which America and the US Constitution rests... specifically states that all men are created equal... men meaning the species... NOT while men, not male men... but the human; and that the US DOI OVERTLY STATES THAT THE GOVERNMENT GETS IT POWER AS A RESULT OF THE CONSENT OF THE GOVERNED; with the US Constitution specifically stating that all powers not imparted to the Federal Government of the US, is specifically reserved by the individuals... ergo, women and minorities have always had the same rights as white men. PERIOD.
This is a common misnomer, so don't sweat it. The point is, that those PRINCIPLES inevitably forced aside the various cultural mores; which FTR, varied widely from region to region and more so from state to state. It is those principles which recognized the PRE-EXISTING RIGHT... those principles recognized that the government cannto give rights and the the only valid purpose of government is to PROTECT THOSE PRE-EXISTING RIGHTS.
And this is why the US Constitution does not GIVE rights, but establishes limitations on the varying powers within the culture; from the power of the individual which is derived from financial influence, to power derived by legislative authority of the State; and why the American founder's established the US Constitution as such.