Phoneguy78
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- Jan 29, 2015
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- Undisclosed
I'm not sure why, but posters who support the father in this case seem to have no ability to answer the simple question the OP poses. I've seen all the statistics and recommendations and advice etc. etc. etc. It's irrelevant in the case outlined in the OP.
The question remains - should this father's demand to make a political point with his son's illness be accepted when it adversely impacts the legal rights of other children in this jurisdiction?
I see your point to an extent, but my question to you is, the school is already telling parents not to send certain foods to school because of a students nut allergy, so if the school is already accommodating one student (and in effect blocking what other children can eat at school) why shouldnt they be required to accommodate all situations at this campus where the actions of other students could affect the health of the one child?