gets probation, because his family's well off? Sorry Gip, that's a load of crap.
What is crap is saying he got probation because of his wealth. That simply is not the evidence.
Actually he murdered four
Actually he didn't. It was manslaughter.
While the black kid intended to violently harm another, and that person died. That is murder.
Is it race baiting? I think he is just pointing out the obvious.
Yes it is race baiting as he is not pointing out the obvious about this case.
He was wrong in regards to this case, the very case which he is using.
Duh!
Sharpton notices that a Black kid gets a long prison sentence while the white one gets probation and rehab.
And this was already explained to you that it is wrong, and why it is wrong.
It's a fact. Blacks are disproportionately populating prisons even though they are not the ones committing the most crimes. Why that is the case is open for debate. But facts' a fact.
Your assertion is a distortion of the the actual facts.
After all, even though whites commit far more crimes as a whole than Blacks, the prison populations are disproportionately high in Blacks.
Holy ****!
First of all, if all things were equal, the majority of crimes should be coming from that specific population as they make up the majority of the population. But it isn't, because all things are not equal.
Secondly your assertion that whites commit far more crimes as a whole than Blacks sounds like it is coming from the FBI arrest stats which are not an accurate representation of who is committing more crimes.
An arrest does not mean that a person committed a crime. So arrests are not actually reflective of actual crime committed.
Beside it being an inaccurate representation of actual crimes committed, the stat that the FBI publishes lumps Hispanics into the white category, further distorting reality.
Incarceration stats, are a better reflection than arrest stats.
Which of course reflects, that by respective population, blacks disproportionately commit far more crimes than whites.
Funny that the guy who killed one guy inadvertently with his fist is considered too violent to help, but the guy who mows down 4 innocent people with an SUV, ignoring his friends pleas to slow down, is considered a non-violent offender. GMAFB.
??? Manslaughter is not considered a non-violent crime.
But the intent between the two is vastly different.
Do you not know what intent is?
One did not intend to harm anyone, yet did.
The other one intended to violently harm someone.
That is a big difference.
I suspect race and socio-economics played a huge roll in that rehab center taking in the rich white guy and refusing the poor black one. You don't? :roll:
Wtf?
That is not the evidence.
One, the rehab center this kid is going to is for drug and alcohol. Not for violent behavior.
Secondly, the evidence suggests it was nothing other than the violent aspect of the 14 year old's crime.
The only thing that is becoming apparent, is that you want to see racial factors that do not exist. Just like Sharpton.
I just can't understand how the judge can justify the sentence being that if the kid suffered from "affluenza", meaning the kid has no concept of right or wrong because his affluent lifestyle meant he didn't face conseqences for his actions... why would one, as a judge, consider to continue or worsen that "affluenza" by letting the kid not face real-life consequences for his actions?
Total paradox.
Interesting. You can't understand because you don't have your facts straight.
The Judge didn't justify any sentence using "affluenza".