If a man, and a woman agree to consensual sex, and she gets pregnant, why, when the child is equally the mans, does he not get equal protection under the law, lets keep it scientific shall we, leave your emotion next to the tissues. WHY DOES HE NOT RECEIVE EQUAL RIGHTS
If by answer correctly you mean they don't give the answer you want to hear, then you are already committing a bias fallacy.
Beyond that, the biological father and the biological mother have the exact same legal rights. Whichever one the offspring is in gets to decide if that offspring is removed from their own body. If the offspring is not in their body, they cannot choose to have or not have the offspring aborted. So if a surrogate is used (IVF), guess what the biological mother
cannot do? Have the offspring aborted! Exactly like the biological father, whose body the offspring is not in. When the offspring is born, both are legally and financially responsible for it. If the biological father makes more money (assuming the biological parents are not together) then he pays the larger share, in proportion to his income over hers. If the biological mother makes more money, then she pays the larger share, in proportion to her income over his. Exact same and equal rights.
The only time that they do not have equal rights is when someone misrepresents those rights. For example, the claim that a biological mother has the right to terminate her offspring before birth. I already proved that wrong by showing that it has nothing to do with the offspring itself, but whether or not it is in her body. Which means in turn that the surrogate can choose to abort the offspring at any time, and she will not receive a legal punishment for it. For a breech of contract, sure, but that is a separate issue from the abortion itself.
Now there can be an issue of whether or not rights are equally
enforced. This is a completely separate issue from whether or not the rights are
equal, and would require a different thread.