david52875
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According to this article i read recently,
So most "pro-choicers" agree with "pro-lifers" that abortion should be made illegal in the third trimester. The "pro-choice" position is, generally, that the mother has a right to privacy/her body/whatever and that from this it follows that she has the right to have an abortion, at least in the first trimester. The "pro-choicers" who are against third trimester abortion, however, also believe that the ZEF has a right to life after the third trimester. But someone's rights cannot just end, and rights are inalienable, so this would imply that the mother has the right to kill the ZEF and the ZEF has a right to life. That is, the mother has the right to violate the ZEF's rights. This is a logical contradiction. Two persons rights cannot conflict. In fact any attempt to derive a right to abortion from the existing rights of the mother while making an exception for the third trimester ends the same way. Consider the following reductio ad absurdum argument:
P1. The mother has a right to X.
P2. From P1, it follows that she has the right to have an abortion in the first trimester.
(Both P1 and P2 are necessarily true if the mothers rights imply her right to an abortion)
P3. The mother does not have the right to have an abortion in the third trimester. (necessarily true if abortion in the third trimester should be made illegal)
1. The mother's right to X exists before, during the duration of, and after her pregnancy. ( From the definition of rights as inalienable.)
2. The mother has a right to have an abortion before, during and after her pregnancy. (From P1 and 1)
3. Therefore, The mother has a right to a third trimester abortion. ( Follows from 2 since the third trimester occurs during pregnancy.)
C. ~P3 & P3 (reductio ad absurdum)
So was the article wrong about most "pro-choicers" being anti third trimester abortion, or do you pro-choicers have another way of justifying an exception for third trimester abortions? Keep in mind the topic of this post was whether or not it is logically consistent (not necessarily correct) to be both pro first trimester abortion rights and anti third trimester abortion rights, so I will ignore any post which tries to prove or disprove abortion rights.
A 2011 Gallup poll showed that making abortion illegal in the last trimester got strong support from both pro-choice (79 percent) and pro-life advocates (94 percent).
So most "pro-choicers" agree with "pro-lifers" that abortion should be made illegal in the third trimester. The "pro-choice" position is, generally, that the mother has a right to privacy/her body/whatever and that from this it follows that she has the right to have an abortion, at least in the first trimester. The "pro-choicers" who are against third trimester abortion, however, also believe that the ZEF has a right to life after the third trimester. But someone's rights cannot just end, and rights are inalienable, so this would imply that the mother has the right to kill the ZEF and the ZEF has a right to life. That is, the mother has the right to violate the ZEF's rights. This is a logical contradiction. Two persons rights cannot conflict. In fact any attempt to derive a right to abortion from the existing rights of the mother while making an exception for the third trimester ends the same way. Consider the following reductio ad absurdum argument:
P1. The mother has a right to X.
P2. From P1, it follows that she has the right to have an abortion in the first trimester.
(Both P1 and P2 are necessarily true if the mothers rights imply her right to an abortion)
P3. The mother does not have the right to have an abortion in the third trimester. (necessarily true if abortion in the third trimester should be made illegal)
1. The mother's right to X exists before, during the duration of, and after her pregnancy. ( From the definition of rights as inalienable.)
2. The mother has a right to have an abortion before, during and after her pregnancy. (From P1 and 1)
3. Therefore, The mother has a right to a third trimester abortion. ( Follows from 2 since the third trimester occurs during pregnancy.)
C. ~P3 & P3 (reductio ad absurdum)
So was the article wrong about most "pro-choicers" being anti third trimester abortion, or do you pro-choicers have another way of justifying an exception for third trimester abortions? Keep in mind the topic of this post was whether or not it is logically consistent (not necessarily correct) to be both pro first trimester abortion rights and anti third trimester abortion rights, so I will ignore any post which tries to prove or disprove abortion rights.