misterman
DP Veteran
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- Nov 19, 2009
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The First Amendment is very clear in its language: Congress shall make no law abridging the freedom of speech. You have been provided with an example where there are practical limits placed on that right and it does not mean whaT you insist it means. For you to continue to pretend that these limits do not exist is to play ostrich and jam your head into the sand.
You are doing the same thing, over and over - telling me that there can be exceptions. And I agree. But that is not the issue. The issue is whether your particular exception is a good one.
That does not even make sense? Is not allowable by who?
The Constitution. Or, more precisely, the courts. But it's also me saying that your logic is faulty.
Your condescending hostility is indeed part and parcel of your posts. If you do not want it mentioned, abstain from its usage. Otherwise, its fair game.
If I seem that way, I apologize. You should know that you're doing the same thing.
If one does not have citizenship, how can one then have rights of a citizen as laid out in the Constitution since it is discussing the rights of citizens?
Constitutional rights don't apply only to citizens, or even only to people.
The First Amendment limits government power. It doesn't protect citizens, or people, per se, but rather, it protects speech. That's how it is written. It applies to all speech, regardless of its source, citizen or otherwise.