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The point I was making is that the Bill of Rights is part of the Constitution whose legal authority can only be enacted within US lands. The amendment is to the Constitution, not a governing right unto itself...it is amending the Constitution itself which makes it part of the Constitution which is limited to governing lands the US occupies, not outside of it.
That is true. Just as it is also true that the Bill of Rights was initially a limitation upon the Federal Government, and did not extend to limiting State Governments until incorporation through the Due Process Clause of the 14th amendment.
But the amendment itself does not explicitly state either of those things. Instead, they must be inferred through context.