• This is a political forum that is non-biased/non-partisan and treats every person's position on topics equally. This debate forum is not aligned to any political party. In today's politics, many ideas are split between and even within all the political parties. Often we find ourselves agreeing on one platform but some topics break our mold. We are here to discuss them in a civil political debate. If this is your first visit to our political forums, be sure to check out the RULES. Registering for debate politics is necessary before posting. Register today to participate - it's free!

Nothing made everything....

...deleted Holy Link...
You invented a bunch of definitions. They're wrong.

Live Science does not define theory or science. They do not own either one. The words 'theory' and 'science' are both defined by philosophy, which also gives the reasoning behind that definition.

A theory is an explanatory argument. It can be inspired by any means at any time. It does not require supporting evidence to create it. Indeed, it can't.
Science is a set of falsifiable theories. That's it. That's all science is. It is not a 'method'. It is no evidence. It is not a scientist or group of scientists. It is not any government organization or university. It is not a piece of paper. It is not any kind of credential. It does not use consensus. It does not use supporting evidence. It is not even people at all.

Science is a set of falsifiable theories.

Only religions use supporting evidence.
 
Live Science does not define theory or science. They do not own either one. The words 'theory' and 'science' are both defined by philosophy, which also gives the reasoning behind that definition.

A theory is an explanatory argument. It can be inspired by any means at any time. It does not require supporting evidence to create it. Indeed, it can't.
Science is a set of falsifiable theories. That's it. That's all science is. It is not a 'method'. It is no evidence. It is not a scientist or group of scientists. It is not any government organization or university. It is not a piece of paper. It is not any kind of credential. It does not use consensus. It does not use supporting evidence. It is not even people at all.

Science is a set of falsifiable theories.

Only religions use supporting evidence.

So, you're saying science doesn't use evidence. Do you think scientists agree?
 
You ignored the "well supported by evidence' part.
A theory does not come from supporting evidence. There is nothing yet to support!
So, what makes you the arbiter of these definitions?
He is not. These definitions come from philosophy. It is philosophy that defines these terms and explains why. Philosophy uses no outside references.
You keep bringing up Argument of the Stone. What is it you think you're doing?
Showing you that you keep making the argument of the Stone fallacy. That is discarding an argument without counter-argument.
You just declare definitions
No, he is stating the declarations made by philosophy.
"These are what I say they are because they are." Over and over
These definitions are what they are because of the reasoning that also comes from philosophy. It is philosophy that defines things like 'science', 'religion', 'hypothesis', 'logic', 'proof', 'fact', etc. The word 'argument', 'predicate', 'conclusion', 'evidence', and 'theory' are defined by logic. It his not his fault you are illiterate in these fields of study.

Now since you seem to disagree with the meaning of science, let's hear your definition. Remember, philosophy does not allow the use of outside references.
 
Ahh, that's your problem. You're using philosophical definitions in a scientific context.
WRONG.Science is defined by philosophy. That is not a scientific context. It is a philosophical one.
When an aerospace engineer calls something a "scoop," in an engineering context, it takes one stupid journalist to declare that he's wrong because he's not bringing light to a story nobody else has gotten onto yet.
The stupid reporter would be utterly wrong. It's still a "scoop". The reporter does not change that.
 
Convenient. That way, God is allowed to murder whoever and nobody can object, eh?
I object to mass murderers no matter their supposed justification.

He can't murder. Destroying your own creation is not murder.
 
You mean like some kind of God, right? Or is this the new standard of scientific proof: "Because it just is, that's why."

Science has no proofs.Science is an open functional system.
 
Define what you perceive "open functional system" and "closed functional system."

A closed functional system is one that declared by a set of founding axioms. The system cannot operate outside those axioms. All other systems are open functional systems.
 
Who is he to murder children and declare me sinful before I've committed a sin?

The Creator. That's all he needs to be. It is not murder to destroy ones own creation.
 
So, you're saying science doesn't use evidence. Do you think scientists agree?

WRONG. I am saying science uses no supporting evidence. It DOES use conflicting evidence.

Makes no difference whether scientists agree. In general, they do not. It's tough to get any two scientists to agree on what the color 'red' means. Consensus is not used in science.
 
WRONG.Science is defined by philosophy. That is not a scientific context. It is a philosophical one.
It's really not. No wonder none of your conversation makes any sense.

The stupid reporter would be utterly wrong. It's still a "scoop". The reporter does not change that.
"Scoop" is a term often associated with reporting a breaking story. In an engineering context, however, that is a nonsensical use of the word. Understand?
 
(Bolded my emphasis) An ‘event’ is a measurement.

Well...as I mentioned at the beginning of my last round of posts, an event can be used to measure time (indeed, they're the only way we have of measuring time). But an event is not itself a measurement. Saying so is roughly like mistaking the map for the territory (to crib from Korzybski). The point I'm making is not that there's a problem measuring an infinitely long temporal interval. There's a problem with an infinitely long temporal period coming to an end since time flows (so to speak) only one direction.

In your meeting example, you’ve only actually defined one point: ‘now’. Your second point: ‘infinitely far from now’, isn’t actually a point, it’s the end of a set of points that has no end: you’re attaching an end point to a thing that has no end point.

Yes, the bolded is exactly correct. The person who claims the universe has always existed is claiming that this moment now is the end point of an infinitely long series of (non-infinitessimal) points.

You can have an infinite number of moments. Moments or numbers, either can be a set and either can be infinite. The problem, at least in my estimation, is when you attempt to constrain one end of that infinite set: the line starts here and ends…. Nowhere? It’s not a line then.

Again, sure. For the proponent of an infinite past, the constraining point is right now. The past is not still happening.

If we’re drawing a line as time passes, the end of the line is ‘now’ and the beginning of the line was at ‘3:30 this afternoon’. If we were immortal, the termination point of the line would always be ‘now’. How much future is left-- i.e. the remaining infinite set of moments-- is irrelevant to where the line begins and ends.

A line requires two points. Always. If you don’t provide a second point, then we don’t have a line.

So in that sense, we don’t have an infinite timeline. We have an infinite time set; the set being discrete moments. You can split those moments down as far as you want, or as big as you want, but the infinite quality of time isn’t in the size of each moment, it’s in the size of the set of moments.

I've been puzzling over these passages for a few days. I'm not sure I understand the work they're doing for your view. Perhaps there's something here I'm just not grasping. I'd appreciate you explaining these points a different way.

“A temporally infinite past exists from now” is, as you stated, incoherent, but not because of the incoherency of either statement independent of the other; rather, it is incoherent because it implies a third statement: line with only one point.

If you think this, I'm not sure why you're arguing against me here.

Again, going back to the example of something existing: it is coherent to say “a thing exists”. It is also coherent to say “a thing does not exist”. It is not coherent to say “a thing exists and does not exist.” But would you then take that failed conjunction of two coherent statements to mean that one of them is false?

I'm actually a proponent of dialetheism in some limited instances, but in this case, sure, it would mean that one of the two propositions is false.

If we use the same system of reasoning that you’re using for time, it seems like you’d be saying we know we exist, and a thing can’t both exist and not exist, so a thing must not be able to not exist.

I'm not sure why you'd think that. My argument is that it cannot be the case that a temporal present exists, and an infinite past exists. A temporal present does exist. Ergo, an infinite past cannot.

You’ve joined two coherent statements into an incoherent statement and then selected the one that most accurately describes your present condition.

No; the two statements merely form part of the same argument. They aren't ever formed into a conjunction together. At best, as reformulated above, as the disjunction in a disjunctive dilemma.
 
Last edited:
Yes, he did. You just responded to him with "wrong"... you didn't support your position in any way.
I did, previously. I explained why he was wrong.

He doesn't care. He invented his own definitions and insists everyone else use them.
 
I did, previously. I explained why he was wrong.

He doesn't care. He invented his own definitions and insists everyone else use them.

He didn't invent definitions for words such as theory and science... neither did your 'holy link' source... neither did any dictionary... neither did the United Nations... neither did any 'science czar' or 'elite voting bloc'... those definitions stem from philosophy, which is the study of how and why we reason...
 
He didn't invent definitions for words such as theory and science... neither did your 'holy link' source... neither did any dictionary... neither did the United Nations... neither did any 'science czar' or 'elite voting bloc'... those definitions stem from philosophy, which is the study of how and why we reason...

Support this claim, or else this is just argument of the stone.
 
Support this claim, or else this is just argument of the stone.

Inversion fallacy. You are the one who is making the unsupported claims...

This also seems to be what I call the 'mockery mantra', which typically occurs when someone has exhausted their other mantras and fallacies.

And I supported it already.
 
That's poor phrasing. Better phrasing would be "There isn't anything which can be said to have made everything."
 
Inversion fallacy. You are the one who is making the unsupported claims...

This also seems to be what I call the 'mockery mantra', which typically occurs when someone has exhausted their other mantras and fallacies.

And I supported it already.

Supported it with what? Words typed into a message board? I did that too. I'm highlighting your double standard. If you want to call that "inversion fallacy," go right ahead.
 
Yes, the bolded is exactly correct. The person who claims the universe has always existed is claiming that this moment now is the end point of an infinitely long series of (non-infinitessimal) points.

I've been puzzling over these passages for a few days. I'm not sure I understand the work they're doing for your view. Perhaps there's something here I'm just not grasping. I'd appreciate you explaining these points a different way.

I’d like to re-frame this discussion as a conversation about lines and infinity, because that is where I perceive our disagreement (or misunderstanding). It could be a time-line or a line of yarn or a line on a graph or a line of cocaine. What the line is doesn’t particularly matter in order for us to talk about something being infinite. I think the implications of time on this discussion are causing confusion due to complexity.

So because of its simplicity, I’d like to talk about this in terms of a Cartesian plane instead of time. I think we can make our arguments in that context without losing anything we need.

Here is the real crux of my argument: there is no such thing as an ‘infinite line’. There is only an infinite set of points. The mathematical description of a line is an infinite set of points, but I don’t think that’s a good definition of a line and it actually creates a logical impossibility, so I’m going to discard it for a new one that I think captures everything important about a line without the problems:

A line is the distance between two defined points.

On a two-dimensional Cartesian plane, a line’s two points are represented by two coordinates: (x,y) (x,y). If I provide actual values for x and y, we have a line.

Absent real values, (x,y)(x,y) as expressed is not actually a line. Rather, (x,y)(x,y) indicates the form the line will take on a Cartesian plane. If we were using Euclidean space for this discussion, the form of a line would be (x,y,z)(x,y,z). All the same, (x,y,z)(x,y,z) is not, itself, a line. It is a formula for a line.

Now, if I only define values for one point, (3,7)(x,y) we still don’t have a line. We have a point. No line can be created until both points are defined. That does not make the existence of a line impossible; it simply means my line, as I’ve started it, is incomplete.

Let’s redirect momentarily to infinity.

An infinite set has no defined (or definable) beginning or end. Because of this quality of infinity, it cannot be used to define a line. In other words, (3,7)(∞,∞) is the same as (3,7)(x,y). To say “the end of an infinity” is the equivalent of of saying “a non-point point” or “point B”. Where is point B? Nowhere. Where is (∞,∞)? Nowhere. It isn’t real.

Infinite sets are also comprised of finite units or points. If we were simply charting points on a graph, we could go (1,1)(1,2,)(1,3)(1,4): ...and on forever in either direction. We could also draw a line between any two of those points. We could also select an individual point anywhere in the infinite set.

That last feature of an infinite set is important: an individual point in an infinite set exists, but its location in relation to the infinite set cannot be described. Why? Because we cannot create a line between it and “the end of infinity”.

Does that make an infinite set impossible? No! It simply means our way of locating a point in relationship to a set of points—drawing a line to that set’s conclusion—is not a tool we can use to locate a point in relationship to the entire infinite set. You can locate its relationship to another point in the set, which allows you to draw a line, but our inability to locate a point’s position relative to an entire set doesn’t make the point’s existence impossible.

And that, to be punny, is the point.

(cont.)
 
Last edited:
Back to the concept of time.

“Now” is a single point in the infinite time set. You can establish a relationship between “now” and another point in the set, but you cannot establish a relationship between “now” and “the rest of the set” in either direction. As I explained, this does mean the set can’t be infinite, nor does it mean that if the set is infinite then “now” is an impossibility. “Now” only becomes an impossibility when you attempt to draw a line between “now” and “infinity”. They both exist, they just can’t exist in relationship to each other.

So if time is infinite, then what is “now”? “Now” is a part of the infinite set of time. Where is “now”? Pick another point in the set and I’ll tell you. Has an infinite amount of time passed before “now”? No, because “now” can’t come before something with no beginning or end. Yet, “now” exists and so does the infinite set.

That’s the paradox of an infinite timeline: an infinite amount of time couldn’t have passed before “now”, because that would imply “now” exists outside of time, yet time is still infinite. But if there can’t be an infinite past, how can the set be infinite? Once again, “an infinite past” is an impossible distinction because a thing in the past is a measure between “now” and “a thing that happened a while ago”: the past works only when two points are defined. The “infinite past” is an incomplete line, just like (3,7)(x,y).

This means if time is infinite, the past is only a meaningful term in reference to a defined point. "The infinite past" is the same as nothing.

We can’t use the infinite set itself as a reference point for a point within the infinite set. If it were true that “the infinite past” makes infinite time impossible, then it would also by necessity make an infinite set impossible. You can believe that if you want, but don’t tell that to any set theorists. It will really ruin their day to hear that an entire field of mathematics is “impossible”.

So if time is infinite, then where is “now” inside the set? It’s here. Now it’s here. Now it’s here… And that’s all you can ever say.

How much of the past has passed then? Well, how much nothing is something?

Again, to steal Georg Cantor’s quote: “I see it, but I do not believe it.”
 
It's really not. No wonder none of your conversation makes any sense.
It is, and it does. Argument of the Stone fallacy.
"Scoop" is a term often associated with reporting a breaking story. In an engineering context, however, that is a nonsensical use of the word. Understand?
An engineer designing a "scoop" is quite sensible. Did you know they actually exist? Apparently YOU don't understand. You can't even build a strawman fallacy very well.
 
Back
Top Bottom