I'm delighted and unsurprised to see us agree on the moral goodness of the universe given its Divine provenance. Of course our moral relativist, materialist, naturalist and atheist friends will neither understand nor accept that premise. And so we're at a delicate point in the argument we are preparing for their benefit.
Yeah, they would have to accept the reality of God's existence for starters, which they don't, so while we agree on that assertion, and it is a correct and logical assertion, it unfortunately won't benefit our "target audience" any.
Man, as they acknowledge, is free to override the universal and objective moral imperative to self-preservation.
This is firmly established, not only through Hamlet's Question, but also to their own admission.
Man, as a voluntary moral agent, may choose, of his own free will, to ignore the moral prompting against self-destruction. And just here, in the moment of moral choice, lies a key distinction.
Man's decision either way must be considered subjective. There's no disputing this.
Correct on all accounts.
However, the alternate moral choices Man faces, the two options on which he must make his considered (and subjective) moral decision -- to be or not to be -- are contained in Hamlet' Question. These two alternatives are already part of the moral question -- indeed these two alternatives comprise the moral question, and the moral answer to this moral question, qua answer, that is to say, in order to be considered an answer to that question, must both semantically and logically contain these alternatives as considered.
Agreed.
Therefore, in the form of the universal objective moral imperative to preserve life, the extinction of life is rejected.
Correct.
Therefore, although Man's decision as between these alternatives is subjective, the two alternatives are themselves objective.
Correct. I wouldn't be surprised to see a rebuttal asserting that, since subjectiveness is involved before arriving at the conclusion, then the conclusion itself is subjective. That assertion is not true, as I have tried explaining to numerous people, because [trusting] our sensory experience (something that is subjective) can lead us to objective truths that were are justified in believing (such as the reality of the external world).
As moral agent Man chooses one alternative over the other, but either choice is a choice of an objective alternative.
One objective choice is the choice to follow the universal objective moral imperative; the other choice is against the universal objective moral imperative. The one is the moral choice; the other, the immoral choice.
Couldn't have concluded it better myself.
Man's scrupling in this scenario is a scrupling prompted by the objective imperative at work in his decision.
Man's freedom, however, allows him to choose against the moral imperative.
Absolutely correct. Again, couldn't have said it better myself. That's the conscience at work...
Please tear apart the reasoning or improve on the expression of the above. I feel we're close to getting this down, but I'm not lighting my cigar yet.
I'm trying to quickly roadmap the whole conversation... I think it went something like this...
1) Behavioral inclinations/disinclinations (instincts) exist.
2) Volition supersedes such behavioral inclinations/disinclinations (instincts).
3) Given #1 and #2, one can conclude that agency is involved.
4) Mankind can make moral decisions, can discern right from wrong, and can be held accountable for said moral decisions (regardless of whether one believes morality is subjective or objective because both beliefs equally assert that morality exists).
5) Given #4, one can conclude that mankind are moral agents.
6) Given #5, one can conclude that Hamlet's Question is a moral question with a moral answer.
7) Hamlet's Question, according to biological science, receives a universal and objective answer in and by the very nature of all living things, which is self-preservation.
8) Suicide and self-preservation are complete polar opposites.
9) Given #6, #7, and #8, one can conclude that the absolute and objective moral answer to Hamlet's Question is "to be" and the absolute and objective immoral answer to Hamlet's Question is "not to be".
Hopefully I didn't miss too much... I went through all the exchanges pretty quickly...