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You get it, of course; they don't. Enough said.
There are moral inclinations and there are moral disinclinations, yes? Now is it reasonable to view the disinclination in man to end his own life a moral disinclination?
(None of the moral relativists wanted any part of this question, and I thought you and I might examine it together to see if there's anything to it.)
Naturalists naturally will dismiss this question as already answered by instinct, as one of our moral relativists asserted before backing out of the conversation, but even he admitted that instinct is a reaction which in the event volition supersedes. If volition supersedes instinct, then agency enters the equation, and if agency is part of the equation, is it reasonable to call it moral agency?
It is not reasonable to call it moral agency. There is an inclination to avoid pain and suffering. Sometimes this inclination leads to a permanent solution.