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I can imagine that someone who has never felt any homosexual urges and does not feel them at the moment might consent, whether from intoxication, on a dare, or for some other reason, to engage in a homosexual act with a person who had a clear sexual desire for them. The person who had the desire might get sexual gratification from the act, but it's possible the person who went along with it would get none at all.
The physical movements, by themselves, are not enough for most people--that's what gives rise to the old saying that the most important sex organ is the brain. Unless you are already feeling some sexual desire toward a person--have had some sort of erotic thoughts about them pass through your mind, even if it's just imagining kissing them--any sexual contact you choose to have with them is probably not going to be gratifying.
That's where the discussion about choosing sexual orientation gets confusing for me. It seems to me that if the first experience was pleasant enough to make a person want to have it again, it was only pleasant because some sexual desire toward the person already existed before the action started. That's why I don't think a truly heterosexual person could choose to have a homosexual experience just because everyone was saying it was the thing to do, and still get sexual gratification from it. And if they didn't find it arousing, doing it again would just be a waste of time.
I think if a person is repeatedly engaging in sex with people of both sexes, they must feel sexual desire for people of both sexes. That is about as difficult for me, as a heterosexual, to get my head around as quantum theory, but the facts seem to show there are people who, at least at some times in their lives, lust after certain people of both the opposite sex and their own. And apparently the desire is strong enough that they often have orgasms with both types.
It does get complicated.