Quantrill
Well-known member
- Joined
- Feb 28, 2012
- Messages
- 1,004
- Reaction score
- 52
- Location
- Texas
- Gender
- Male
- Political Leaning
- Conservative
The question is very coherent and easy: From where does Quantrill derive the notion that Muslim laws are functioning over and above constitutional governments outside of the Middle East? He cannot answer that of course, because Muslum (Sharia) law is not functioning as such anywhere outside of its boarder countries. He also says that sharia is secular, which is nonsense: it's sectarian; it's no different than Vatican City.
I noted the word "over" because that's the word he used, so I challenged his definition.
Now, what questions do you have?
Islam doesn't have a 'boarder country'. If you would pay attention, you might learn something.
Quantrill