sweet
Active member
- Joined
- Jan 29, 2013
- Messages
- 367
- Reaction score
- 349
- Gender
- Female
- Political Leaning
- Independent
In my opinion the abortion debate is simply black & white.
I cannot see any gray areas, the unborn are either "persons" deserving of all rights under the law or they're not.
If when sex is consensual and pleasurable and a pregnancy occrues, "personhood" deserving of all rights and protection under the law should be granted to the ZEF from the moment of conception.
Even if precautions were taken to prevent pregnancy, she consented to sex and should deal with the consequences and give birth
Then why is a "person" (zef) created through a violent act should not be granted all rights under the law. The ZEF is recognized as a person but should not be granted rights under the law because it was conceived during a violent act, through no fault of the woman, she did not choose the act therefore does not need to be responsible for the consequences
If a born person was conceived during a violent act should their mother be allowed to kill at anytime after birth?
Why not?
A "person" conceived during a violent act should not have rights at conception, why and when should those rights be granted if carried to term?
The act in which it was conceived has not changed, so why and when does the status?
A woman should take responsibility for her actions and deal with the consequences when she consents to and enjoys sex and the result is pregnancy, because once conceived the new life should have the "right to life" and protection of the law.
A woman who conceives during a violent act did not chose or consent to the act so the new life should no "right to life" or protection of the law.
This make no sense to me. If the ZEF concieved during a violent act is not a person or not a person granted rights and protection, then no ZEF can be granted rights and protection, and if a ZEF concieved during consentual, pleasurable sex is granted rights and protection than all ZEFs should be granted rights and protection
Many pro-lifers say women use abortion as birth control, and most abortions are for Convince and they see abortion as the "easy" way out.
This stance to me, implies that it is not so much about the "person" (zef) and equal rights, but rather the way in which it was conceived. Because that is the one and only difference between the two
The ZEF is what it is, regardless of how it was conceived
I can't see how it can be any other way or how there can ever be exceptions (gray areas) since we don't make exceptions when it comes to the rights and protection of born persons
There are many pro-lifers who will only make an exception in the case where the mothers life is in danger.
My questions here are :
If the woman wouldn't die but would have to live with a life long condition caused by the pregnancy, how serious would the condition have to be to deem it dangerous enough to abort?
Abdominal and vaginal muscle weakness, anemia, preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, pelvic organ prolapse, cardiovascular disease,embolism, stroke?
Or is it only the risk of death?
How high would the risk have to be to deem it dangerous enough to abort, 20% chance, 50% chance, 80%?
What if there was a 50% for either to live but 0% for both to live, if efforts are placed on saving the woman the fetus will die, placing efforts on saving the fetus means the woman dies, who's life should take precedence?
I cannot see any gray areas, the unborn are either "persons" deserving of all rights under the law or they're not.
If when sex is consensual and pleasurable and a pregnancy occrues, "personhood" deserving of all rights and protection under the law should be granted to the ZEF from the moment of conception.
Even if precautions were taken to prevent pregnancy, she consented to sex and should deal with the consequences and give birth
Then why is a "person" (zef) created through a violent act should not be granted all rights under the law. The ZEF is recognized as a person but should not be granted rights under the law because it was conceived during a violent act, through no fault of the woman, she did not choose the act therefore does not need to be responsible for the consequences
If a born person was conceived during a violent act should their mother be allowed to kill at anytime after birth?
Why not?
A "person" conceived during a violent act should not have rights at conception, why and when should those rights be granted if carried to term?
The act in which it was conceived has not changed, so why and when does the status?
A woman should take responsibility for her actions and deal with the consequences when she consents to and enjoys sex and the result is pregnancy, because once conceived the new life should have the "right to life" and protection of the law.
A woman who conceives during a violent act did not chose or consent to the act so the new life should no "right to life" or protection of the law.
This make no sense to me. If the ZEF concieved during a violent act is not a person or not a person granted rights and protection, then no ZEF can be granted rights and protection, and if a ZEF concieved during consentual, pleasurable sex is granted rights and protection than all ZEFs should be granted rights and protection
Many pro-lifers say women use abortion as birth control, and most abortions are for Convince and they see abortion as the "easy" way out.
This stance to me, implies that it is not so much about the "person" (zef) and equal rights, but rather the way in which it was conceived. Because that is the one and only difference between the two
The ZEF is what it is, regardless of how it was conceived
I can't see how it can be any other way or how there can ever be exceptions (gray areas) since we don't make exceptions when it comes to the rights and protection of born persons
There are many pro-lifers who will only make an exception in the case where the mothers life is in danger.
My questions here are :
If the woman wouldn't die but would have to live with a life long condition caused by the pregnancy, how serious would the condition have to be to deem it dangerous enough to abort?
Abdominal and vaginal muscle weakness, anemia, preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, pelvic organ prolapse, cardiovascular disease,embolism, stroke?
Or is it only the risk of death?
How high would the risk have to be to deem it dangerous enough to abort, 20% chance, 50% chance, 80%?
What if there was a 50% for either to live but 0% for both to live, if efforts are placed on saving the woman the fetus will die, placing efforts on saving the fetus means the woman dies, who's life should take precedence?