This is a bit of what is referred to as "selective intellectualism".
We can all cherry pick FACTS and use them to draw conclusions that fit our existing baises.
For example, based upon mountains of research over the last 40 years, we also KNOW for a FACT that:
- -Whites are more likely to USE drugs than Blacks
- -Whites are more likely to SELL drugs than Blacks
- -And yet, Blacks are THREE times more likely to be arrested, and SEVEN times more likely to be convicted and incarcerated compared to whites for the SAME offenses.
- -Even though Black men are LESS likely to use/sell drugs than White men, Black men are sent to state prisons on drug charges at THIRTEEN times the rate of White men....and 57 times the rate of White me for federal prisons.
So in terms of policing, it's just as easy to use statistics to argue that Blacks are over-policed, and Whites are under-policed.
Now, are those facts "racist" to you, Cope?
The truth is that violent crime correlates with poverty, not race. And here's another statistical FACT: Practically the ONLY people attempt to justify police violence against non-whites......are bigoted whites.
The clear underlying message of the OP--as demonstrated by the attempt use selected statistical data to generalize about (and defend) police violence against unarmed African-Americans--is racial bigotry based upon an old, tired trope about black criminality.
Facts are not racism. This is true. Of course, this is also a red-herring, since NO ONE in this thread has implied as much. The USE of cherry-picked "facts" to justify racist police behavior in our society is VERY OFTEN based on racial biases and bigotry, however.
Of course, I'm pretty sure you knew that. You were just hoping to get away with that tired old trope of an rebuttal, weren't you?