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- May 1, 2013
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Prior to 1920 you weren't guaranteed a right to vote. Precedence does not make right.
I'm not saying your definition is a bad one. I am saying states have a right to choose a different definition, and some have begun to do just that.
Yes they do...we've concurred with that...right up until the protection of those rights violates the federal rights of women. Your posts look so foolish when you refuse to acknowledge this, are you hoping the uninitiated wont realize it?
Even a state judge acknowledged that in ND this week. He was very clear and used federal rights in his decision...and over turned that state's attempt.


