If it were all so "Jewish," and according to the Law, why did they give Jesus and his disciples such a bad time?...
Yeah. I deleted most of your quote. I only included your quote that pertained to my response...
Messiah. That word in Jewish lore meant the one who would deliver the Palestinian Jews from gentile dominance (the Romans). When on Palm Sunday, when the crowd in Jerusalem shouted Messiah to Jesus they were declaring Jesus to be the one who would deliver Palestine back to the Jews. Do you see why Pilate thought Jesus might be the king of the Jews?
Here are, off the top, some differences between Christianity and Judaism during Jesus' time:
(1) entrenched Jewish sects allowed Palestine to be ruled by the Romans (did they have a choice). These sects certainly didn't publicize the need for a messiah in Palestine. In fact, a successful messiah in Palestine would have destroyed their power in Jerusalem (given by the Romans).
(2) Praying and sacrificing in the temple in Jerusalem became a monied venture. Jewish supplicants paid for the right kind of sacrifice. Paid temple priests for the privilege to pray. Priests were one of the wealthiest Jews in Jerusalem.
(3) Women could not enter the temple in Jerusalem.
(4) The Holy of Holies was a chamber in the farthest interior of the temple in Jerusalem where, according to Jewish ideology, God was supposed to reside.
Only high ranking Jewish priests were allowed to enter this chamber.
IMO, the segment in the Bible, as Jesus died on the cross, referring to the veil of the temple being rent (torn) - referring to the seclusion of the Holy of Holies in the temple being destroyed - could mean either:
God was displeased with his limited access by special priests, God was displeased with the whole Holy of Holies arrangement in the temple, or God was displeased because Jesus died.