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Trump Sneaks Dangerous Rights for Fetuses Into Executive Order

Yes, I asked if something could be done in the future. You then asked who had had it done to them in the past.

quote this.

Your response did not address the question I asked. It addresses something that I did not ask. That is a strawman fallacy.

I asked you to answer mine first, so address mine first.

Rephrase the question. I am not understanding what you are asking. I suspect that you are asking me about things that go beyond the point of my argument.

As you are certainly doing in the middle of an argument based on morality rather than rights.

And the slaves violations of bodily autonomy were done legal circumstances as well.

No one said otherwise. The specific thing under discussion there was about the violation of private property rights. Do not mix and match responses out of convenience.

And if a status can be given, then why can it not be removed? If we were able to say that blacks were not persons, then what, for example, stops us from saying that women are not persons and thus it's not a violation of bodily autonomy to force them to gestate?

Please answer my question first, and my original response is a partial answer to that, including one complete reason. The question is to dispute or argue the things I listed. (That's the clarification you ask for).
 
I disagree with this statement. It is quite possible. But it has to be under the recognition that certain rights trump other rights in specific conditions. If a man is trying to beat me senseless, his right to life holds no bearing, as I can kill him if that is what it takes to stop him from beating me like that. My right of bodily autonomy overrides his right to life in that situation. Thus it would be the same for the woman even if the unborn had a right to life.
No one has the right to use another person's body or bodily resources for their or another's benefit. So the unborn does not trump the woman's rights and autonomy. Your example is an issue of self defense, not acquisition of bodily resources. Your example can also be applied to gestation: pregnancy is inherently risky to a woman's health. So by your example, a woman has the right to an abortion to protect herbody and health.
All true. So then you agree that intentional infringement upon by another on one's bodily autonomy is irrelevant.
Where did I say that?
If the argument is that only intentional infringement is necessary, then that infringement would not apply to the unborn since there is no intent there. As we argue often, there is no brain present during the period of development where the vast majority of abortions are done for any intent to be present. Intent is irrelevant, when it comes to bodily autonomy. I can factor into the response to the violation, but a lack of it does not excuse the violation nor warrant the continuation of the violation.
Intention does play a factor. For example, intention can be the difference between a charge of murder or a charge of manslaughter or whatever.
You didn't answer the other question.
Which question was that?
So personhood is a subjective value, determined only by what the law says? Obviously the law and the Constitution determine that blacks were not initially people. What criteria does the COnstitution provide for determining personhood? How would we, for example, determine personhood in a non-human?
So why can't that status be legally changed for the unborn?
Personhood is a legal definition and determination. Granting rights to laves does not infringe on anyone else's own rights and autonomy. Granting rights to the unborn does.
But that third person in the example already had personhood and rights and all.
Yes, and?
And yet your bodily autonomy still overrode all of that. So why would that be any different for an unborn?
How so? I am not infringing on anyone's rights? That's like saying I'm infringing on someone's rights if I refuse to donate blood to them. You can see how stupid that is, right? No one has a right to my body or bodily resources without my consent.
 
quote this.

Who's "personhood" was removed?

Past tense

I asked you to answer mine first, so address mine first.

I don't think that I can because your question runs on a false premise. You specifically claimed that the unborn having rights would violate the rights of the one they are in. But this is patently false. If a born person with rights cannot violate your rights, specifically that of bodily autonomy, then why are you assuming that the unborn can violate those rights? Without you addressing this premise issue to your question, I do not believe that there can be an answer.
 
Past tense

Because you asked me this, out of the blue:

So then it is possible to legally remove an individual's personhood, or even that of a group, correct?

I don't think that I can because your question runs on a false premise. You specifically claimed that the unborn having rights would violate the rights of the one they are in. But this is patently false.

Please prove this statement, in bold, is wrong.

If a born person with rights cannot violate your rights, specifically that of bodily autonomy, then why are you assuming that the unborn can violate those rights? Without you addressing this premise issue to your question, I do not believe that there can be an answer.

Please answer as asked above.
 
No one has the right to use another person's body or bodily resources for their or another's benefit. So the unborn does not trump the woman's rights and autonomy.

Exactly. The unborn has no intent, and yet it still violates the bodily autonomy. Therefore, intent is irrelevant

Your example is an issue of self defense, not acquisition of bodily resources. Your example can also be applied to gestation: pregnancy is inherently risky to a woman's health. So by your example, a woman has the right to an abortion to protect herbody and health.

Bingo! Just as you would be able to cause the death of the one who was taking your bodily resources, despite them having no intent to do so, regardless of any right to life that they might have, so too can a woman terminate the unborn, who has no intent to violate, even IF (with no implication that they do) they, the unborn, had a right to life.

Where did I say that?

In the statement that that line responded to, and again in the above two statements. You acknowledged it when you stated that you still had the right to cause the termination of one who was taking your bodily resources, even though they had no intent to.

Intention does play a factor. For example, intention can be the difference between a charge of murder or a charge of manslaughter or whatever.

Granted, in those circumstances. But in my example, did the intent of the one who was receiving your bodily resources matter? Or did you still have the right to end that use of your bodily resources, even if i meant the termination of the other, despite no intent by the other?

Which question was that?

Abortion is not murder either.
Per what argument? What makes a homicide murder or not?


Personhood is a legal definition and determination. Granting rights to laves does not infringe on anyone else's own rights and autonomy. Granting rights to the unborn does.

How so? How would the unborn having rights provide them with an ability that the born do not have? If that third person in the example could not have their right to life override your bodily autonomy, then how could the unborn's (presumed for the question) right to life do it?

Yes, and?

How so? I am not infringing on anyone's rights? That's like saying I'm infringing on someone's rights if I refuse to donate blood to them. You can see how stupid that is, right? No one has a right to my body or bodily resources without my consent.

You have it backwards. I am not saying that you infringed on someone's rights. I am saying that their infringement on your bodily autonomy is not negated by their right to life. You acknowledged that for the example. And even though that third person didn't even know they were taking of your bodily resources, you still had the ability to override their right to life, by stopping their use of your bodily resources, even though their termination was 100% guaranteed. Now if that born person's right to life cannot override your bodily autonomy rights, then how could an unborn's do so, if they had it?
 
Because you asked me this, out of the blue:

Exactly. That is future tense. It is asking if it can be done. You responded in the past tense asking when it had be done. These are two separate things.

Please prove this statement, in bold, is wrong.

You quoted the proof with the very next quote line. A born person who violates your bodily autonomy cannot use their right to life to prevent you from ending that violation. If in ending the violation, you cause their termination, their right to life doesn't prevent you from doing so. Your right to bodily autonomy overrides their right to life. So if that is the case for the born, then the unborn would not be able to use their right to life (on the presumption that they had such) to override your bodily autonomy.
 
Past tense



I don't think that I can because your question runs on a false premise. You specifically claimed that the unborn having rights would violate the rights of the one they are in. But this is patently false. If a born person with rights cannot violate your rights, specifically that of bodily autonomy, then why are you assuming that the unborn can violate those rights? Without you addressing this premise issue to your question, I do not believe that there can be an answer.
No, the poster is correct and isn't assuming that born or unborn can violate those rights.

The unborn implants in the woman's uterus without asking if it's okay first. It uses part of her endometrial tissue to make a placenta. It directs the placenta to catabolize the essential amino acid tryptophan in her body, thus starving her immune attack T-cells and causing certain among them to go into latency, so that they cannot function to protect her from alien viruses, etc., or reproduce. As it grows, it breaks things inside her body.

If the woman consented to that from the start and consents to it all during the pregnancy, it isn't violating her rights. But if she didn't and doesn't consent, it is violating them. It's the same problem as consensual sexual intercourse and rape - the only thing differentiating these is the woman's consent.

No person has ever had a right to someone else's body, or a right to use that body for any purpose without the consent of that person. That's why there are consent forms for much medical stuff, too. It's why no one can force you to give blood for a transfusion or a bodily organ for a transplant, even if it would save a life, and even if the one saved were one of your kids.
 
Exactly. That is future tense. It is asking if it can be done. You responded in the past tense asking when it had be done. These are two separate things.

I did not respond that way. I asked you to clarify the question, period.

You quoted the proof with the very next quote line. A born person who violates your bodily autonomy cannot use their right to life to prevent you from ending that violation. If in ending the violation, you cause their termination, their right to life doesn't prevent you from doing so. Your right to bodily autonomy overrides their right to life. So if that is the case for the born, then the unborn would not be able to use their right to life (on the presumption that they had such) to override your bodily autonomy.

The bold is not something I've ever written or implied. Other people make that argument. The unborn cannot act, cannot form intent, has no volition. As such, since I dont consider it equal to the born (that is not all the reasons), I do not ever find it should take priority legally, morally, or practically, over the woman carrying it.

"I value the unborn but I value the born more" is a statement I have made here for years.

I do however, discuss...as I did the govt or society acting on the unborn and if done without the woman's consent, violating many of her rights. And you completely ignored this. The govt cannot protect the purported rights of the unborn equally with the rights of the woman carrying it.

Now...I do not wish to follow up on this line of conversation here. Feel free to start a thread if you want to. I was involved in a conversation with another poster addressing the morality of abortion...which we agreed would not address rights or law. (except when a right and harm/morality may overlap).
 
But if she didn't and doesn't consent, or withdraws that consent, it is violating them.

A minor but key, in my opinion, correction.

It's the same problem as consensual sexual intercourse and rape - the only thing differentiating these is the woman's consent.

No person has ever had a right to someone else's body, or a right to use that body for any purpose without the consent of that person. That's why there are consent forms for much medical stuff, too. It's why no one can force you to give blood for a transfusion or a bodily organ for a transplant, even if it would save a life, and even if the one saved were one of your kids.

You are saying exactly what I am here. You have presented nothing that would show how an unborn with rights could violate the bodily autonomy of a woman when a man with rights cannot. If a man is raping a woman, and the only way she can stop him is to kill him, does his right to life say that she is not allowed to kill him in order to stop his violation of her right? Of course not. So then how does an unborn with a right to life prevent a woman from ending its violation of her bodily autonomy when the born man's right to life does not?
 
I did not respond that way. I asked you to clarify the question, period.

So then it is possible to legally remove an individual's personhood, or even that of a group, correct?
Future tense
Who's "personhood" was removed?
Past tense.

You absolutely responded that way. Your question does not address my question, therefore any clarification that you are asking for applies to something other than my question. If I had made some claim or question about someone or some group that had lost their personhood, then your question would apply. But I did not do that. Gordy said that personhood is a legal determination. I asked on what basis. You responded its use in US law, which is circular reasoning BTW. My response to you was the question of if personhood is determined by law, then can (future tense) personhood be removed from an individual or group of people? Asking who has (past tense) lost their personhood does not address that question.

The bold is not something I've ever written or implied. Other people make that argument.

Yeah, no duh! That was MY statement that YOU quoted in #129, that directly answered your demand even as you demanded it.


The unborn cannot act, cannot form intent, has no volition.

Regardless, the unborn is still violating the woman's bodily autonomy by its presence in her body if she is no consenting to it being in there, correct? Is that not one of the common arguments that you and I (among others) have been putting out there for years now?

As such, since I dont consider it equal to the born (that is not all the reasons), I do not ever find it should take priority legally, morally, or practically, over the woman carrying it.

I don't either. My argument only points out that IF the unborn were to have a right to life, it would no more override a woman's bodily autonomy than a born person's would. You seem to be arguing that IF the unborn were granted a right to life, that it would suddenly have more ability to override the woman's bodily autonomy right than a born person could.

I do however, discuss...as I did the govt or society acting on the unborn and if done without the woman's consent, violating many of her rights. And you completely ignored this. The govt cannot protect the purported rights of the unborn equally with the rights of the woman carrying it.

Except that they can as long as they are treated the same as the born. If a born cannot override a given right, then an unborn cannot override a given right.

Now...I do not wish to follow up on this line of conversation here. Feel free to start a thread if you want to. I was involved in a conversation with another poster addressing the morality of abortion...which we agreed would not address rights or law. (except when a right and harm/morality may overlap).

No one is making you respond. As such, my first response to you was over you talking about the legal status of slaves (#103). I came in on a statement of legal issue.
 
Prove there's a "creator" first! Not that it's relevant, as the Constitution does acknowledge the separation of church and state. Besides, the DoI is worded in a way to appeal to the King of England as head of the Church, and only establishes our sovereignty as a nation and nothing more. Bottom line, the unborn do not have any rights per the constitution and federal law, no matter how much you want to disingenuously pretend otherwise.
Wow, demand proof for the Creator you claim is irrelevant. Then, falsely claim the Constitution "acknowledges" the separation of church and state. The DoI expressly states the Creator is the source of human rights. Cite the Constitutional text specifing separation of church and state. On the one hand you deny the explicit words of the DoI while on the other you claim something that isn't in the Constitution. It's a house of cards attempt to rationalize taking the lives of the unborn.

No question you believe unborn children have no right to life. What other forms of human life do you believe can be liquidated at will?
 
I could be wrong, but I feel like we have usually heard the sex assigned at birth.

One of Trump's propaganda tricks is repetition. Perhaps they decided to change it to who they are at the time of conception here in an effort to get it in the everyday lexicon.

I just noticed they are red flagging the term "assigned at birth."


If we are being fair, of those, the “pregnant person” term is pretty stupid and Portlandia sounding.
 
The left's hysteria is mind numbing.
And, as you'd expect, the New Republic is there to flog on that hysteria, pouring yet more gas on that fire.
 
Wow, demand proof for the Creator you claim is irrelevant.
How so if 'Creator' is mentioned? Clearly you have no proof.
Then, falsely claim the Constitution "acknowledges" the separation of church and state.
What's false about it? The Constitution establishes a separation of church and state. Simple fact.
The DoI expressly states the Creator is the source of human rights.
So? It has already been explained why and why it's irrelevant.
Cite the Constitutional text specifing separation of church and state.
The 1st Amendment, as well as being affirmed by the Founding Fathers and the SCOTUS.
On the one hand you deny the explicit words of the DoI while on the other you claim something that isn't in the Constitution. It's a house of cards attempt to rationalize taking the lives of the unborn.
I know the words on the DoI. They simply do not mena what you think they mean. And I'm not trying to rationalize anything. Who said I needed to. I simply stated facts.
No question you believe unborn children have no right to life. What other forms of human life do you believe can be liquidated at will?
No belief either. Also simple fact, which you have yet to refute.
 
Exactly. The unborn has no intent, and yet it still violates the bodily autonomy. Therefore, intent is irrelevant
At leat you agree the unborn is violating one's bodily autonomy.
Bingo! Just as you would be able to cause the death of the one who was taking your bodily resources, despite them having no intent to do so, regardless of any right to life that they might have, so too can a woman terminate the unborn, who has no intent to violate, even IF (with no implication that they do) they, the unborn, had a right to life.
They do not. As you said, they are violating another's bodily autonomy and take their bodily resources. Therefore they can be removed at the behest of the one that is being occupied and parasitically fed on.
In the statement that that line responded to, and again in the above two statements. You acknowledged it when you stated that you still had the right to cause the termination of one who was taking your bodily resources, even though they had no intent to.
I am beginning to wonder wht your point is? You seem hung up on intent.
Granted, in those circumstances. But in my example, did the intent of the one who was receiving your bodily resources matter? Or did you still have the right to end that use of your bodily resources, even if i meant the termination of the other, despite no intent by the other?
The better question is, was consent given before bodily resources was obtained? It doesn't matter what happens to the "other."
How so? How would the unborn having rights provide them with an ability that the born do not have? If that third person in the example could not have their right to life override your bodily autonomy, then how could the unborn's (presumed for the question) right to life do it?
It does not and should not. If a pregnant woman does not consent to have her body used for gestation or withdraws consent at anytime, then the unborn should be removed.
You have it backwards. I am not saying that you infringed on someone's rights. I am saying that their infringement on your bodily autonomy is not negated by their right to life. You acknowledged that for the example. And even though that third person didn't even know they were taking of your bodily resources, you still had the ability to override their right to life, by stopping their use of your bodily resources, even though their termination was 100% guaranteed. Now if that born person's right to life cannot override your bodily autonomy rights, then how could an unborn's do so, if they had it?
Already addressed.
 
No one is making you respond. As such, my first response to you was over you talking about the legal status of slaves (#103). I came in on a statement of legal issue.

Now...I do not wish to follow up on this line of conversation here. Feel free to start a thread if you want to. I was involved in a conversation with another poster addressing the morality of abortion...which we agreed would not address rights or law. (except when a right and harm/morality may overlap).
 
At leat you agree the unborn is violating one's bodily autonomy.

I've never said otherwise. In fact, my position is the RvW was wrong in that it used medical privacy as its basis instead of bodily autonomy.

They do not. As you said, they are violating another's bodily autonomy and take their bodily resources. Therefore they can be removed at the behest of the one that is being occupied and parasitically fed on.

Who does not what? If you mean the unborn does not have a right to life, I didn't claim that. I said that IF they has a right to life, it would no more override bodily autonomy than a born person's right to life would.

I am beginning to wonder wht your point is? You seem hung up on intent.

You made a point that something was illegal because it was an intentional infringement. Such an argument leaves an implication that if the infringement is unintentional, then it is not illegal. Ironically you later make the comparison of murder vs manslaughter. The lack of intent didn't change the fact that the deceased right to life was infringed upon and that the result is still illegal and convictable. Basically, with the use of intent of infringement, it left open an argument that because the unborn has no intent it cannot be in violation of her bodily autonomy.

The better question is, was consent given before bodily resources was obtained? It doesn't matter what happens to the "other."

I would say not really, given that consent can be withdrawn. The question is, is consent currently present?

It does not and should not. If a pregnant woman does not consent to have her body used for gestation or withdraws consent at anytime, then the unborn should be removed.

So just to be clear, you are agreeing that an unborn could have a right to life and that still would not cause violation of the women's bodily autonomy rights, yes?

You still haven't answered the question on what makes abortion not murder
 
I've never said otherwise. In fact, my position is the RvW was wrong in that it used medical privacy as its basis instead of bodily autonomy.
Roe was just fine. Bodily autonomy might have been a stronger foundation for it.
Who does not what? If you mean the unborn does not have a right to life, I didn't claim that. I said that IF they has a right to life, it would no more override bodily autonomy than a born person's right to life would.
It's not about 'what if,' but rather what is.
You made a point that something was illegal because it was an intentional infringement.
No, I did not. I said intention can be a part of determining criminal severity, using the aforementioned murder charge as an example. Pregnancy and abortion is not a criminal offense, even if some states try to make it such. In a pregnancy situation, the only "intention" that matters is the woman's intent to continue a pregnancy or not.
Such an argument leaves an implication that if the infringement is unintentional, then it is not illegal. Ironically you later make the comparison of murder vs manslaughter. The lack of intent didn't change the fact that the deceased right to life was infringed upon and that the result is still illegal and convictable. Basically, with the use of intent of infringement, it left open an argument that because the unborn has no intent it cannot be in violation of her bodily autonomy.
Again, irrelevant. It's the woman's intention in the situation that matters.
I would say not really, given that consent can be withdrawn. The question is, is consent currently present?
Yes. Is the woman consenting, i.e. choosing to remain pregnant or not?
So just to be clear, you are agreeing that an unborn could have a right to life and that still would not cause violation of the women's bodily autonomy rights, yes?
No. I do not see how you could even come to that reasoning, considering I never argued that.
You still haven't answered the question on what makes abortion not murder
Murder applies to persons with rights and autonomy. The unborn are neither.
 
Sorry for the interruption:

What's legal isn't really relevant, because what's legal is specifically what I want to change. Abortion should be generally illegal for the same reason murder should be: it deliberately takes the life of an innocent.

Denying the medical procedure comes at the expense of another individual, overriding her consent to her own life, health, pain and suffering, bodily autonomy, and moral agency. It doesnt just affect her having a heartbeat...that 9 months of sickness, debilitation, the risks of financial hardship for her and dependents, food on the table, roof over heads, inability to fulfill her obligations to others...all affect the entire rest of her life and other people. Only the individual woman (and her dr.) know these risks and circumstances. How are strangers or the govt. justified in imposing their will on that woman, imposing those risks and harm on her and others?
Is it your view that humanity's goal should be merely that "both woman and unborn survive the birth with a heartbeat?" No matter if one or both will be tied to a ventilator? Be severely sick, defective, in pain, non-functioning mentally or physically, etc?​
Do you choose quantity over quality of life? If so, IMO that view dehumanizes both woman and unborn...reducing both to nothing but physiological functions...their humanity lost. Do you see this as well? If not, please explain.​

My questions are the foundation for moving forward with discussion.
 
Sorry for the interruption:



Denying the medical procedure comes at the expense of another individual, overriding her consent to her own life, health, pain and suffering, bodily autonomy, and moral agency. It doesnt just affect her having a heartbeat...that 9 months of sickness, debilitation, the risks of financial hardship for her and dependents, food on the table, roof over heads, inability to fulfill her obligations to others...all affect the entire rest of her life and other people.​

Can you kill a newborn to avert pain and suffering? To avert financial hardship for yourself or your dependents? To avert food insecurity or the loss of your home? No. These concerns don't justify killing someone.

Only the individual woman (and her dr.) know these risks and circumstances. How are strangers or the govt. justified in imposing their will on that woman, imposing those risks and harm on her and others?

When it comes to killing someone, all of society is justified in imposing its will. That's why self-defense claims are scrutinized even in slam-dunk examples. You're demanding the power to kill with impunity. That's a right no citizen has in any other context.

Is it your view that humanity's goal should be merely that "both woman and unborn survive the birth with a heartbeat?" No matter if one or both will be tied to a ventilator? Be severely sick, defective, in pain, non-functioning mentally or physically, etc?​

Humanity's goal should be to never deliberately kill innocents. If both are tied to a ventilator by our fighting for both lives, that's a better outcome than if we murdered one to save the other. If they are sick but alive, that's a better outcome than if one were healthy by murdering the other.

Life is better than death.

Do you choose quantity over quality of life?​

Yes, because quality of life is subjective, and we aren't making the decision about our own lives, but someone else's. If a man's quality of life is too low in his estimation, he is free to take his own life. Looking at another's prospective quality of life, finding it wanting, and killing them without their consent is the business of Nazis and other barbarians.

If so, IMO that view dehumanizes both woman and unborn...reducing both to nothing but physiological functions...their humanity lost. Do you see this as well? If not, please explain.​

I do not see this. Is the child's humanity better preserved by killing it?
 
Can you kill a newborn to avert pain and suffering?
Yes, it's called withdrawal of or comfort care measures.
To avert financial hardship for yourself or your dependents? To avert food insecurity or the loss of your home? No. These concerns don't justify killing someone.
Those are certainly concerns some might have and reasons why one might choose abortion. Who are you to decide for someone what is or is not justified?
When it comes to killing someone, all of society is justified in imposing its will.
There is no "someone" killed in an abortion and neither does abortion negatively affect society in the least.
That's why self-defense claims are scrutinized even in slam-dunk examples. You're demanding the power to kill with impunity. That's a right no citizen has in any other context.
Applicable to persons, not the unborn. Although, one could argue abortion is a form of self defense.
Humanity's goal should be to never deliberately kill innocents.
Says who? What authority determines that?
If both are tied to a ventilator by our fighting for both lives, that's a better outcome than if we murdered one to save the other. If they are sick but alive, that's a better outcome than if one were healthy by murdering the other.
Except that's not how ventilators work in the real world.
Life is better than death.
That's a matter of opinion. Ask the terminaly ill or those suffering or with intractable pain which is really better.
Yes, because quality of life is subjective, and we aren't making the decision about our own lives, but someone else's.
When it comes to the unborn, only the pregnant woman gets to make decisions.
If a man's quality of life is too low in his estimation, he is free to take his own life. Looking at another's prospective quality of life, finding it wanting, and killing them without their consent is the business of Nazis and other barbarians.
"Prospective?" So you're saying it's not an actual "life" yet. Glad you can admit that.
I do not see this. Is the child's humanity better preserved by killing it?
There is no child in an abortion. So your point, whatever that is, is moot!
 
Yes, it's called withdrawal of or comfort care measures.

That's for the terminally ill. "Withdrawing care" for a healthy newborn would be illegal, and horrifying.

Those are certainly concerns some might have and reasons why one might choose abortion. Who are you to decide for someone what is or is not justified?

I said a newborn, not the unborn. Would you justify killing a newborn to address those hardships?

There is no "someone" killed in an abortion and neither does abortion negatively affect society in the least.

Applicable to persons, not the unborn. Although, one could argue abortion is a form of self defense.

Okay, so if the unborn were legal persons, you'd oppose abortion?

Says who? What authority determines that?

Practically every authority I can think of, legal, religious, etc, says it's wrong to kill innocent human beings. Can you think of one that doesn't?

Except that's not how ventilators work in the real world.

That's a matter of opinion. Ask the terminaly ill or those suffering or with intractable pain which is really better.

Do you think you should be able to kill such people without their consent?

When it comes to the unborn, only the pregnant woman gets to make decisions.

Just as when it came to slavery, only slavers had any say. One party was deprived of human rights.

"Prospective?" So you're saying it's not an actual "life" yet. Glad you can admit that.

I'm saying their quality of life is entirely potential, not their actual life. A child may be born into poor circumstances and become vice president of the United States. We can't possibly know that when they're unborn. Or 5 years old either.

There is no child in an abortion. So your point, whatever that is, is moot!

Sorry, but there is. Look at a 3D ultrasound.
 
Can you kill a newborn to avert pain and suffering? To avert financial hardship for yourself or your dependents? To avert food insecurity or the loss of your home? No. These concerns don't justify killing someone.

It's not even comparable...the newborn is not inside the woman and thus does not impose all the things I listed on the woman. Your answer is completely invalid.

When it comes to killing someone, all of society is justified in imposing its will.

Citation?

That's why self-defense claims are scrutinized even in slam-dunk examples. You're demanding the power to kill with impunity. That's a right no citizen has in any other context.

We cannot kill people with impunity. And thus as a society, society is not entitled to force a woman to remain pregnant with an unborn that may not even survive to birth, demanding that she suffer all the risks and sacrifices and pain and losses that the 9 months of pregnancy and the effects on the rest of her life. And the affects on others she loves and is responsible to and for. Remember I kept emphasizing the "others" that are also affected?

Is society responsible for her life? If so, it cannot demand she risk it to preserve the unborn inside her. It is immoral for society to impose that kind of life-changing, possible death, pain and suffering on women. The unborn affects no other people, except maybe the partner, and suffers no pain. So the moral balance is clearly to protect women.

Humanity's goal should be to never deliberately kill innocents.

What are women guilty of? The innocence you refer to is meaningless to me in any philosophical or REAL sense, as the unborn cannot think or act or even form intent. It is an empty "innocence," merely a vacuum. I dont accept that emotionally manipulative arguement.

If both are tied to a ventilator by our fighting for both lives, that's a better outcome than if we murdered one to save the other. If they are sick but alive, that's a better outcome than if one were healthy by murdering the other.

I very much disagree and I tried to spell it out for you. I support quality of life over quantity. What you describe is dehumanizing to both...just keep their hearts beating, that's all that matters.

As a moral argument, I disagree with that. Esp if the woman's life and health can be saved by an abortion. There are others in her life that she matters to. Why doesnt her life, every day, and all those in her life and her obligations to others outweigh the unborn's "potential?"

Life is better than death.

See above. Not everyone agrees with that, for sure. So why should strangers be entitled to force their belief on women that dont agree? The women and their loved ones, dependents, etc that will suffer the consequences of strangers' decisions?

Yes, because quality of life is subjective, and we aren't making the decision about our own lives, but someone else's. If a man's quality of life is too low in his estimation, he is free to take his own life. Looking at another's prospective quality of life, finding it wanting, and killing them without their consent is the business of Nazis and other barbarians.

Do you believe this is a black and white issue? And you are looking at a woman's prospective future and quality of life and DECIDING FOR HER. IMO that is immoral. The unborn may not even survive until birth and if it does, it may be severely mentally or physically defective. The woman is here, part of society and a chain of loved ones.

Adults do make the difficult decisions about their own lives, their families, even the lives of their children. If they believe they are acting in the best interests of their own and others' lives...why should strangers be more entitled to do so?

I do not see this. Is the child's humanity better preserved by killing it?

It is not preserved. That should be clear. It should not be preserved at the expense of all who and what the woman is as an individual and moral agent and contributes and means to others. That's my moral stance.
 
Trump wants to be king.
 
Wow, demand proof for the Creator you claim is irrelevant. Then, falsely claim the Constitution "acknowledges" the separation of church and state. The DoI expressly states the Creator is the source of human rights. Cite the Constitutional text specifing separation of church and state. On the one hand you deny the explicit words of the DoI while on the other you claim something that isn't in the Constitution. It's a house of cards attempt to rationalize taking the lives of the unborn.

No question you believe unborn children have no right to life. What other forms of human life do you believe can be liquidated at will?

The DOI is not a legally binding document and the 1st A has been interpreted as "separation of church and state" respecting the direct meaning of the text "shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof" and its intent as well. This is fact, not a false claim. It came from Thomas Jefferson and his words are what we see in the 1st A and here is his "intent" and meaning:

"The expression “separation of church and state” can be traced to an 1802 letter that Thomas Jefferson wrote to a group of men affiliated with the Danbury Baptists Association of Connecticut. In this letter he stated that religion was “a matter which lies solely between Man & his God,” and that government should not have any influence over opinions. Therefore, he asserted: “I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should ‘make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof,’ thus building a wall of separation between Church & State.”" link
 
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