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Okay, that subject line is a bit extreme, but hey, it was a hook and it got you here.
What I mean is this. Often unalienable or natural rights are cited as a concept to justify all kinds of judicial hijinks. "This is clearly a natural right, so even though it's mentioned no where in the Constitution it must be a Constitutionally protected right, right?" Such laws certainly have meaning and they were a source of inspiration for the freedoms we enjoy today. But in a legal sense, ultimately unalienable and natural rights amount to little more than political poetry. They sound nice but don't mean much.
I say this because at the end of the day the only rights you really enjoy are those your government chooses to protect. Doubt this? Let's pick one, liberty. Fairly uncontroversial as far as unalienable rights go, but do the people of North Korea have it today? Did those in Soviet Russia or Nazi Germany? Did African Americans enjoy it in the United States prior to 1865 (or at times after)? An unalienable right means absolutely nothing when you're sitting in a concentration camp having been found guilty of a thought crime.
So are natural rights in anyway meaningful in a legal context?
What say you?
What I mean is this. Often unalienable or natural rights are cited as a concept to justify all kinds of judicial hijinks. "This is clearly a natural right, so even though it's mentioned no where in the Constitution it must be a Constitutionally protected right, right?" Such laws certainly have meaning and they were a source of inspiration for the freedoms we enjoy today. But in a legal sense, ultimately unalienable and natural rights amount to little more than political poetry. They sound nice but don't mean much.
I say this because at the end of the day the only rights you really enjoy are those your government chooses to protect. Doubt this? Let's pick one, liberty. Fairly uncontroversial as far as unalienable rights go, but do the people of North Korea have it today? Did those in Soviet Russia or Nazi Germany? Did African Americans enjoy it in the United States prior to 1865 (or at times after)? An unalienable right means absolutely nothing when you're sitting in a concentration camp having been found guilty of a thought crime.
So are natural rights in anyway meaningful in a legal context?
What say you?