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The non-existent Palestine & Mark Twain

Did Mark Twain invent Palestine?


  • Total voters
    7

Hatuey

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I enjoy Mark Twain. He seems like somebody who was far ahead of his time. He had minorities as important characters in a story long before CSI and the WB. Anyways, I ran across some of his writings which talked about 'Palestine'. This struck me because I've heard supporters of Israel constantly state there was no such thing as Palestine.

You're all been had... there are no "Palestinian People!
Palestinian people do not exist
All Things Beautiful: The Myth Of Palestine
There's no such thing as "Palestine" - Israel Forum

Now Mark Twain lived over 120 years ago. He visited this non-existent Palestine. But he never called it 'Israel'. He never calls it Judea, Iudea or any other name that one could tie to Israel. He very clearly states that there are two places, one called Palestine and one which is called Israel. From the reading I gathered that one is where the other use to be or that at the very least they are close to eachother. Are they one and the same? Or are they two different places? Or was Mark Twain simply confused and make up the word 'Palestine' all by himself?

 
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Palestine was the name of the colony that existed there before the State of Israel was founded...and it's mentioned as far back as the Bible (e.g. the "Philistines"). I don't see how anyone could claim it never existed...there have been Jews and Arabs living side by side in that part of the world for millennia.
 
The name Palestine has been used for ages to represent an area, a colony, and a Mandate. The issue is that there has never been a sovereign STATE named Palestine.
 
I know in Mark Twains day there was no country called Palestine, of course nor was there a country called Israel.That part of the world was Part of the Ottoman Empire.
 
You have several Basic misunderstandings. Thus turning this question into a popularity poll.

There has never been a Self-Governing entity called 'palestine' since it last called ISRAEL. (aka Judea and Samaria).

'Palestina' was what the Romans RENAMED 'Israel' when they defeated it--- intentionally adding insult to injury by using the name of the Jews' former enemies, the Philistines.
Part of the map designation 'Palestine' that had been used for centuries with little meaning except geographical (similar to 'The Holy Land') was Renamed 'Israel' in 1948.

In the 20th century and until Israel was formed... the word 'Palestinian' generally referred to a Jew.
The Arabs not adopting the name until 1960 or so.
But thanks for posting Twain tho.. and there's dozens of others who reported the same sparse, desolate, land.

This Poll is a Bizarre way of asking a question that should be a String title with discussion/explanation in the Middle East section, NOT a Yes or No contest.
In fact, there is a related and explanatory string in the section right now.. only one down frm the top:
http://www.debatepolitics.com/middle-east/48220-myth-1-israel-stolen-land.html
 
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I know in Mark Twains day there was no country called Palestine, of course nor was there a country called Israel.That part of the world was Part of the Ottoman Empire.

Don't know why Twain used the name Palestine unless he was thinking of it in an ancient historical sense. That area was a part of Syria in Ottoman times.
 
The issue isn't whether or not there was a territory called Palestine. The issue is whether or not there was a people called Palestinians, defined as we do so today. For anybody who knows anything whatsoever about history, the answer is an emphatic No. Localized Arabs of the Levant did not begin to distinguish themselves as "Palestinian" " until the advent of Zionism, and the term didn't really take hold in the popular lexicon until a few decades ago. Heck, even in my own lifetime, the term was not in general use.
 
Hatuey, as others have stated above, the name Palestine was referring to the land, not to a sovereign state or to a nation.
The land was named Palestine by the Roman Empire after it has conquered it from the Israeli Kingdoms.
 
I'm curious. What would Hautey's point be if I were to answer yes? What is it supposed to mean if I were to say that because of Mark Twain, I finally realize that Palestine existed in any context other than a state? Is this supposed to change any conclusion I've made when I've objectively examined the history of the creation of modern Israel?
 
Imagine how different things might be if the area were still colloquially referred to as "Judea."
 
Imagine how different things might be if the area were still colloquially referred to as "Judea."
Exactly. Jews being from Judea, and Arabs from Arabia, would change perceptions.

Thus...
 
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