Just exactly how did the alleged Immaculate Conception go down? How was Mary's egg fertilized, if at all? Was sperm involved? If it was possible to get a DNA sample from Jesus, what would that DNA reveal about the paternal donor?
Just exactly how did the alleged Immaculate Conception go down? How was Mary's egg fertilized, if at all? Was sperm involved? If it was possible to get a DNA sample from Jesus, what would that DNA reveal about the paternal donor?
Alleged being the operative word.
...opcorn:
Your ignorance in this matter is noted, gentlemen. The Immaculate Conception does not refer to Mary's pregnancy, but to Mary's mother's pregnancy. It refers to Mary's having been conceived without original sin. Remember this thread and your posts next time the smart aleck in you rises.Holy sperm Batman!!!
Your ignorance in this matter is noted, gentlemen. The Immaculate Conception does not refer to Mary's pregnancy, but to Mary's mother's pregnancy. It refers to Mary's having been conceived without original sin. Remember this thread and your posts next time the smart aleck in you rises.
I answered the OP. It doesn't know what it's talking about.Yes, there's an error in the thread title. Any answer to the OP itself?
I answered the OP. It doesn't know what it's talking about.
How was Mary's egg fertilized, if at all? Was sperm involved? If it was possible to get a DNA sample from Jesus, what would that DNA reveal about the paternal donor?
There's no error aside. The OP is ignorant of the topic and deserves no further comment than that.Error aside:
Mary had a baby and the baby was/is God. We are not allowed to ask how that pregnancy happened, I guess.
There's no error aside. The OP is ignorant of the topic and deserves no further comment than that.
Non-Christians can wonder about the mysteries of a faith foreign to them, sure; but mockery and vulgar jokes about that mystery do not deserve more attention than they merit. Scorn merits only scorn.
You don't know the questions, let alone the answers, and you are without respect for what you don't know. No one's interfering with your right to post from and in ignorance. By the same logic I have the right to call you on it.Sorry Angel.You are way off base. These forums are designed to debate, discuss, and learn.That is why we ask questions we don't know the answers to that others may be more knowledgeable in. I learned ( from you ) definatively what the Immaculate Conception is. The other questions are fair questions made with no ill intent, no vulgarity, no scorn. That just seems to be your false interpretation of the question (s) posed and/or you touchy nature of such questions being posed for purposes of learning.
Well LM, I can tell ya what the Bible has to say about it...
“Well then, sin entered the world through one man, and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” Romans 5:12
The Bible tells us that in accord with the requirement of the Mosaic Law, 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered at the temple in Jerusalem a sin offering for purification from uncleanness so she, too, had inherited sin and imperfection from Adam...Luke 2:22-24; Leviticus 12:1-8....
You don't know the questions, let alone the answers, and you are without respect for what you don't know. No one's interfering with your right to post from and in ignorance. By the same logic I have the right to call you on it.
But that really doesn't address the physical process involved as to how Mary became pregnant, E. That is what I am interested in getting input on.
Scientifically Possible?
Reproduction without a male is known as parthenogenesis [Greek, parthenos meaning “maiden” plus “genesis”]. Recently scientists have been experimenting successfully with parthenogenesis in mammals. The Economist of August 1, 1981, reports: “Embryo development in the absence of sperm is the natural means of reproduction in many lower species of animal. . . . Parthenogenesis is being studied using laboratory mice. Several means exist for artificially activating an unfertilised mouse egg.”
Similarly, Dr. M. B. V. Roberts of Marlborough College, England, writes: “An unfertilized egg was removed from a female rabbit, activated by pricking, and then popped back into the uterus. Hormone treatment had been previously given to the female so that her uterine mucosa was prepared for implantation. Normal development ensued, and a visibly normal offspring was produced.”
Are we to conclude from this that God induced Mary’s pregnancy in some such way from an unfertilized egg? No. From the accompanying chart, you can see why. If Mary’s firstborn had received both chromosomes (X) from her, the offspring would of necessity have been female.
Hence, something more must have been involved in the conception of Jesus. Just what this was the angel explained to Joseph: “That which has been begotten in her is by holy spirit.” (Matthew 1:20) We do not know precisely how this was done. Yet we must admit that if mere man can in a limited way manipulate the fertilization process in the laboratory, surely it is not beyond the power of the Creator and Life-Giver of the universe to do so and to transfer the life-force of his Son from the heavens to the ovum of a virgin girl.
A female’s egg contains two X chromosomes. The male sperm cell has an X and a Y. Each parent provides one chromosome. If two X’s combine, a girl is produced. If an X and a Y, the child will be male.
Laboratory-induced parthenogenesis causes a female egg to divide and grow, so the result (XX) must be a female.
Such a type of parthenogenesis could not have occurred with Mary, for her firstborn (Jesus) was a male. Since she was a virgin, the Y chromosome must have been supplied miraculously, as the Bible indicates.
Mary served as an incubator, nothing more...
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1982121?q=why+a+virgin+birth&p=sen
I admitted I learned something. Where did I show any disrespect ?
So if it was possible to get a DNA sample from Jesus, what would the DNA reveal about his paternal donor, if anything ?....and thx for the link and civil convo.
I don't think you did...people must be on edge because of the holidays...:2razz:
Well, as the link points out, it was miraculously given to her by Jehovah through his holy spirit...Matthew 1:20...
Fair to to say we don't know what the DNA would reveal?
The apostle John explains that before Jesus was born on earth he lived in the spirit realm as the firstborn Son of God and was called the Word. In due time “the Word became flesh and resided among us.” (John 1:1-14) Or, as expressed elsewhere in the Bible: “God sent forth his Son, who came to be out of a woman.” (Galatians 4:4) Jesus himself acknowledged that “on coming into the world: ‘[God] who wanted no [animal] sacrifice or oblation, prepared a body for me.’”—Hebrews 10:5, Jerusalem Bible.
There were strong reasons for Jesus’ becoming a human, “coming into the world” of mankind. High on the list was the redemption of the human family from slavery to sin, imperfection and death. The apostle Paul explained: “Through one man sin entered into the world and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men because they had all sinned.” (Romans 5:12) As to how Almighty God would cope with that situation, Paul says: “There is one God, and one mediator between God and men, a man, Christ Jesus, who gave himself a corresponding ransom for all.”—1 Timothy 2:5, 6; compare 1 Corinthians 15:21, 22.
Yes, death came to all humans through the rebellion of our forefather Adam, and justice required the life of another perfect man, not more, not less, to provide the ransom that would buy back the possibility of everlasting life for us. No imperfect human could possibly provide that. (Psalm 49:6, 7) Someone would have to step down from the heavenly realm. Appropriately, the one to do this was the firstborn Son of God. He had to become a perfect man and yet not lose his continuity of life. His life-force was not to be extinguished but would be transferred to the ovum of the virgin girl, Mary. She, ‘overshadowed by the protective power of the Most High,’ could produce a perfect body for the babe Jesus.—Luke 1:35.
This explains also why the life-force could not come through an imperfect human male in the normal way. An imperfect Jesus could not have become the ransom. Nor could he have become such as an incarnation or God/man.
Fair to say, yes...but he had to be 100% human male for this reason...
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1982122
That's my understanding. That is why am so curious as to what his DNA would reveal.
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