Yes but evidence can lead you to believe something.
But that's not what happened here. The belief existed before evidence, so you cannot claim that the results of the belief is evidence.
You were not correct and I already explained why.
I most certainly was correct and I've explained why in a very detailed fashion. Books, traditions, temples, etc. are not pieces of evidence for the existence of God. To claim otherwise is fallacious. You made a fallacious claim.
I have said it twice now, there isn't proof that God exists.
But you tried to claim there was EVIDENCE God exists, and the evidence you tried to use was an example of begging the question.
This is why you were incorrect when you said that my post was circular.
I was correct when I noted your claim was fallacious. Books, traditions, temples, etc. are not evidence for the existence of God, even though you claimed they were. They can be evidence that humans believe in the concept of a divine being, but it is not evidence of a divine being. The only way for your statement to be, that books and temples are evidence of a divine being, is to accept the premise a divine being exists. Thus, you are begging the question.
I never said there was. I said there was enough to be able to believe in God rationally.
But your evidence does not support the existence of a divine being, which you tried to claim it was. That is what I corrected you on.
I said that it's reasonable to assume God exists based on the evidence.
But the evidence of books, temples, traditions etc. does NOT suggest a divine being. It suggest people believe in a divine being. The only way you can say books, temples and traditions are evidence of a divine being is to assume a divine being exists in the first place. And, as I've said multiple times now, that is a fallacy of begging the question.
No It isn't. Your misinterpretation of my claim was a fallacy.
No, it's not. First of all, a fallacy can only exist when a logical flaw is present in an argument. There is no logical flaw to my position. Even if I misunderstood you, which I didn't, a misunderstanding is not a logical fallacy. At best, you could claim a straw man, but since I'm using your exact words, no straw man was built.
No my statement was sound logically. Perhaps you misunderstood it. I'm thinking that is what it is because my very first post in this thread was that there is no scientific proof that God exists.
I'm not debating with your over whether there is proof of anything. What I corrected you on was your statement that the existence of temples, books, traditions, etc. were EVIDENCE of the existence of God. The fact is those are NOT evidence of the existence of a divine being. Here is your original claim, in context:
You said:
I think your argument is about the same as hers. Sure there is evidence. There are books traditions timples and shrines. That's all evidence that there is a God. It's just not conclusive
You claimed the existence of "books traditions timples [sic] and shrines" is evidence there is a God. But it's not. It's evidence man believes in a divine being, but no one is disputing if man believes in a divine being. We obviously know many do. What we're discussing is whether there is evidence of the existence of a divine being. Those things you mentioned are all man-made, and done because of the pre-existing belief. That is not evidence of a god. As I said, the only way you can say those are evidence there is a God is to assume there is a divine being in the first place. Otherwise, those are simply examples of products created by man.
Your comment clearly was an example of begging the question. Now, perhaps you didn't mean what you typed, but what you typed was fallacious.