Oh, I am definitely ignorant on a great many subjects, but at least I know that no amount of personal invective will disguise a posters inability to counter anothers arguments.
Nonsense. The term is used by many people who mean different things by it. I've even heard people apply it to the US, where a large portion of the economy is either controlled or outright owned by the govt. At the same time, I've heard others call it socialism, or something close to it.
And I also know that making unsupported claims will not work merely because you've chosen to pile on some more personal insults.
Yes, "general term", "for the most part" etc. That's some "definition" you've got there.
- Provide a list of companies nationalized by the US govt. They represent a tiny fraction of the economy. The burden is on you to prove your claim.
- What the general public refers to as a free market and what economists refer to it as are two different things.
I said nothing about conditions that exist, or modern economics. I referred to nonsense that you are pushing, that is neither existing nor modern
What I talked about was economics 101, in regards to competition, supply and demand, price theory, and labor economics.
If you believe you know what I am talking about, point out where I am talking about concepts that are not based in modern economics
That's right, you can't.
Once again, you reveal your ignorance. It may be an insult, but it's true.
You reliance on personal insults weaken your argument.
Using an insult as an argument does not make a valid argument. Adding an insult to an argument does not change the content of that argument, nor increase or decrease its validity.
If you think so, then not only are you ignorant, but lacking in basic intelligence as well.
Of course it's non-sequitor because I never said that. I said nothing about labor never being determined by "unregulated prices", nor did I say anything about price manipulation
The price of labor is included with the concept of price theory. If you knew a thing about economics, you would know this. The fact that you do not, once again shows your ignorance.
You talking about manipulation of the value of labor. The value of labor its its price. Thus, manipulating the value of labor is manipulating prices.
You first said that there has been manipulation of labor prices. You then said that determination of labor price by the market never happens.
Nonsense. From the very beginning, this land has been a joint venture between a govt (ex France, England, Spain, etc) and corporations (which are themselves inventions of, and regulated by, the govt)
Purchasing land from another government is a one-time event. It does not equate to continued and widespread government control of the economy. Corporations are business entities. The fact that they have some regulation does not mean that, as you suggest, that prices and competition are managed by the government.
Most corporations are not joint ventures with the government. The burden is on you to prove that this is the case, because a quick look at say, top 500 or 1000 corporations shows that few, if any, are joint ventures with the government. There are a few exceptions where corporations are granted special privileges by government, but this is not currently, not historically, generally the case.
But they are. The fact that you claim otherwise does not make them something else, simply because you precede and follow them with insults about how ignorant I am.
Notice I used the term "so-called".
The "modern" economic principles and theories which you claim as "free market" theories are nothing of the kind. There are economic principles which have shown their value, but those are not known as "free market theories"; they are "economic theories" (or economic principles)
I did not claim they were free market theories. Using the term "free market" is not the same as referring to "free market theories". The first is a statement where market fundamentals are generally manipulated.
WHile there are principles which have been empirically validated, those are not "free market principles", nor do they show that markets with less govt interference are more efficient. Many govt regulations, such as those that require disclosure, increase the efficiency of markets.
Saying "markets are more efficient when unhampered" is meaningless because it's a truism. It's like saying people are more comfortable when they have less discomfort. It's just one of many empty slogans the free market fetishists like to chant in order to make it sound like they have some sort of understanding of economics.
Actually, in regards to information economics, its a mixed picture & unclear with regards to disclosure requirements
http://web.mit.edu/wysockip/www/papers/LW2008.pdf
http://faculty.chicagobooth.edu/chr...omic_consequences_of_increased_disclosure.pdf
It's not a truism, because it is not apparent to most people who are not economists, nor has it always been apparant. It's a conclusion that has been reached over time by most economists, and something that has become more apparent over time.
Some government regulation is beneficial. Interfering with market fundamentals is not one of those. This is a lesson that has not yet been learned by the general public, many journalists, and most politicians. If this statement were a truism, it would be apparent to most everyone. If it were a truism, it would be apparent without the building of an edifice of economic knowledge that eventually comes to that conclusion from multiple angles. It is not, hence your claim that it is a truism is false.
I'll just quote economist Bryan Caplan, who knows much more about economics than me, and most definitely you.
"In short, in neoclassical jargon, a powerful case now exists that free-market structures are "second-best" efficient: there is no feasible real-world way to improve upon them."
Wrong again. I'll remind you that preceding your nonsense with an insult does not make your nonsense make sense.
Saying "wrong" is not a refutation. You really suck at debating.
For someone with reading comprehension, the use of quotation marks around the term should stand out.
In referring to "free market theory", I am not referring to any formal economic theory, but rather the stances & their justifications of economists who advocate a free market.
Such stances were not developed, as I said, by economists who dreamt up a hypothetical scenario, and then theorized about how things would work.
You are the one who is wrong, because you clearly failed to comprehend what was being said.
And none of those are "free market theories"
No, they are elements that are used to support the position of economists who believe in less regulation as a general principle, with specific exceptions.
Finally you said something that is true. There is no such thing as free market theory.
Again, you fail to comprehend the difference between people who use the term "free market", and the belief that people who advocate the free market, are somehow relying on a "free market theory".
Let's rehash how this confusion on your part began. When economists say things like "in a free market", they are referring to a general lack of interference of market fundamentals. The things that I described are economics 101 -- most of the things I talked about are things that you will learn in Microecon I & II, and a few good expository books on basic economic principles.
If you have a shred of intellectual honesty, you will attempt to actually show which economic ideas I talked about are not based in modern economic thought.
You then said that these arguments are meaningless, because there has never been a completely free market. This is red herring, and a common one at that.
I said that it is not necessary for an economy to be completely devoid of regulation, in order for market forces to work.
You then said that it has never been true that the market determines labor value. You supported this claim by prefacing it with a statement that labor value has often been manipulated. The burden is on you to prove your claim that markets have never determined labor value, by showing that in general, in the history of our country, government has enforced sweeping price controls.
Again, with your meaningless nonsense.
Are you really this stupid? I am explaining to you what is meant when people refer to a "free market" or a "free market economist" such as Milton Friedman.
This is necessary because you believe that:
- markets have never determined the value of labor
- that from the beginning, this country has been a joint venture between government and corporations
- that the basic economics that I talked about in my previous post are not based in modern economics
- that a free market is a hypothetical thing, because there has never been a free market. As I have tried to explain, talking about the free market refers to unrestricted exchanges between individuals. When Intel competes with AMD, and sells a CPU to a manufacturer, who then sells you a computer, this is a free market, insofar as the exchanges are unrestricted, and generally speaking, they are.
To claim that there has never been a free market, is to claim that there has never been a business arena where free exchange takes place.
A free market is a matter of degree -- something that you clearly fail to comprehend.
The burden is on you to prove your absurd claims, and the burden is on you to prove that the basic concepts that I talked about in previous posts are not based in modern economic thought.