No offense, but hopefully we can get Right in here to talk about law things because this makes no sense.
Now, I understand that he would have to prove somehow there was some kind of legitimate negative effect upon him BASED on the statements for it to happen.
But how can one "prove" a negative. If I say "Al Sharpton once said that slavery was good, we just need to have the whites being the slaves instead. That's the correct order of things, and what god would want, the white men beneath our heel" how can he "prove" he didn't say it? You're asking to prove a negative and to my knowledge our court system does not require a negative to be proven.
Indeed, the fact that those that made the claim have chosen not to retract it despite being informed that its false and without being able to give any further evidence that it is true in and of itself proves it to at least be unverifiable.
What you're suggesting is the proof of a negative, and I do not know of such a standard in our court. Rush would have to make his case that he actually suffered an tangible negative effect DUE to the words (that's positive proof) but his "proof" that they were stating it is untrue is their inability to present proof that he actually stated it.
If the law worked as you said, which I'm almost positive it doesn't, slander/libel would almost never be able to happen because you can't prove that you did not say anything if the person making the claim doesn't give a reference or some kind of back up to when you said it.
"There is a class of colored people who make a business of keeping the troubles, the wrongs, and the hardships of the Negro race before the public. Some of these people do not want the Negro to lose his grievances, because they do not want to lose their jobs. There is a certain class of race-problem solvers who don't want the patient to get well." -- Booker T. Washington
None taken, but it is quite easy to use Google. But if you want a lawyer (Right's still in school), there are actual practicing lawyers on the board.
And the law does work exactly as I said, which is why there aren't alot of libel slander cases against public figures. There sure are some, however.
If the law didn't work exactly as I said, the freedom of speech would be infringed by the burden of needed to verify the veracity of everything you say before you say it. Even false statements are protected, unless the plaintiff proves that the person who said it, or wrote it, knew it was true or was grossly negligent with regard to the truth.
I wonder why Page Six is able to stay in business, btw? They are often grossly negligent with regard to truth ....
I think you misunderstand severely here. The lack of defamation cases is not due to the suspension of natural debate law which is what you are proposing here with your "prove the negative" meme. It is because many defamation suits fail to show how the defamatory statements have caused harm to the plaintiff. I already posted what goes into a defamation suit and it was pretty clear. Care to address that?
j-mac
Really? I am waiting for the support for the claim being made by several here that the burden of proof is on the defendant. It should be pretty easy to come up with. And, btw, defamation is not the same thing as libel, nor is it the same thing as slander. Just to clarify.
None taken, but it is quite easy to use Google. But if you want a lawyer (Right's still in school), there are actual practicing lawyers on the board.
And the law does work exactly as I said, which is why there aren't alot of libel slander cases against public figures. There sure are some, however.
If the law didn't work exactly as I said, the freedom of speech would be infringed by the burden of needed to verify the veracity of everything you say before you say it. Even false statements are protected, unless the plaintiff proves that the person who said it, or wrote it, knew it was true or was grossly negligent with regard to the truth.
I wonder why Page Six is able to stay in business, btw? They are often grossly negligent with regard to truth ....
I am clear on the definitions, are you?
It's all right here, and it doesn't agree with your stance that the Plaintiff must prove the statements false.
www.debatepolitics.com/breaking-news/58250-sources-checketts-drop-limbaugh-14.html#post1058310558
j-mac
Another significant concern is that, even where the statements made by the defendant are entirely false, it may not be possible for a plaintiff to prove all of the elements of defamation. Most people will respond to news that a plaintiff lost a defamation lawsuit by concluding that the allegations were true.
No offense, but hopefully we can get Right in here to talk about law things because this makes no sense.
Now, I understand that he would have to prove somehow there was some kind of legitimate negative effect upon him BASED on the statements for it to happen.
But how can one "prove" a negative. If I say "Al Sharpton once said that slavery was good, we just need to have the whites being the slaves instead. That's the correct order of things, and what god would want, the white men beneath our heel" how can he "prove" he didn't say it? You're asking to prove a negative and to my knowledge our court system does not require a negative to be proven.
Indeed, the fact that those that made the claim have chosen not to retract it despite being informed that its false and without being able to give any further evidence that it is true in and of itself proves it to at least be unverifiable.
What you're suggesting is the proof of a negative, and I do not know of such a standard in our court. Rush would have to make his case that he actually suffered an tangible negative effect DUE to the words (that's positive proof) but his "proof" that they were stating it is untrue is their inability to present proof that he actually stated it.
If the law worked as you said, which I'm almost positive it doesn't, slander/libel would almost never be able to happen because you can't prove that you did not say anything if the person making the claim doesn't give a reference or some kind of back up to when you said it.
I'm not disagreeing with the notion its harder for public figures. This is absolutely true.
However the difference between Page Six and what happened with Rush is generally what's being said on Page Six, that happens to be untrue, doesn't generally have a legitimate chance of being shown damaged some sort of business venture.
Regardless of it all, it still basically rests on the notion that I still believe its patently obvious that if these sports reporters even gave two ****s about doing a good job rather than making a hit piece then Limbaugh would still be part of the user group. I find it disturbing, and rather pathetic, watching liberals here completely and utterly condoning the sinking of a persons private business ventures through the wide spread use of false information. I find it hillariously ironic its many of the same people who continually bitch about the birther buisness.
I am gonna unsubscribe from this thread before my respect for liberals diminishes completely. But before I do, would anyone PLEASE point me to these so-called racist remarks in context.
Or has it just broken down into "Rush is a bad, bad man and deserves to be lied about and slandered"?
As I understand it, Jackalope is pretty close to right on this(note, I am not a lawyer either, so take it for what it is worth). There are two reasons why public figures don't do alot of slander lawsuits, one being they create more problems than they solve, and because it is painfully hard to win since you have to prove intent.
Not disagreeing that its harder on public figures. Partially due to it being harder to prove damage, partially because its hard to prove they did it knowingly.
My issue is with the notion that Limbaugh must "prove" that he DIDN'T say something, which nothing I've seen backs it up. This would be like accusing someone of murder and them the person that is accused must "prove" they didn't really murder the person and if they can't prove it they must have murdered him. The legal system doesn't work that way.
Please feel free to show where I said anything beyond "I believe he is", and that was in another thread, and no one knows for sure if any one is racist or not since we cannot read minds. Stop trying to create stuff where it ain't.
The reason why I don't feel bad for Rush, and I have stated this, is he is politically divisive and makes a living saying outrageous things, which there is nothing wrong with. However, there will be repercussions from being outrageous and divisive, and crying about it won't do any good. There is nothing wrong with me saying "Rush is an asshole and I will laugh at any bad thing that happens to him", and compared to some things said against lefties(oh, the selective outrage of you again), it's pretty mild.
To prove that he is being misquoted, he pretty much has to prove what he did say.
i still haven't seen or heard exactly what sharpton or jackson said. never the less, rush's partner dropped him.Did I say I have an issue with Sharpton and Jackson saying what they're saying? No. I said their hypocrites, but not that they can't say it.
I'm confused, what business oppertunity did Rush potentially cause Sharpton or Jackson to lose out of due to Rush stating false quotes made by them or stating things they said without context?
Doubtful. No real point. He doesn't need the money coming from suing them. He's not going to get a chance to get back into the team ownership, which is what he'd want. It'd be time consuming and stress inducing, and in the end likely barely actually covered by the media so there'd likely be little mainstream vindication. There's no real reason to actually go forward with it.
And you're saying that somehow the first person is automatically considered to be telling the truth unless Limbaugh can somehow "prove" that he never said something at any point during his entire life?
i still haven't seen or heard exactly what sharpton or jackson said. never the less, rush's partner dropped him.
i have every doubt that roger g. would have wanted rush as an owner anyway. the nfl doesn't need his controversy OR his money.
So it really does boil down to "all my ethics and morals about lying go out the window because I just don't like Rush".
Noted.
And I am getting a bit fed up with your lying crap about how selective my outrage is. If it were anyone else, I would be stating the same thing. Piss off.
No, that is not it at all.
Looking at it closer.
No, Rush Limbaugh does not have to "prove" that he didn't say the things they sayd he said.
However
As a public figure, for it to be libel/slander, you are correct in him having to prove that the person that published the information knew it was false or acted with reckless disregard to its truth.
Now, reckless disregard is up to interpritation. Some may find requoting a line posted in a biased blog story, that reposts it from a biased book, a reckless disregard. I am unsure on what could argument could be made in regards to this if its shown that after announcing it to be false there was no further investigation by the author and no retraction or correction attempt made. Additionally, if any person in print or TV media continued using these quotes AFTER Limbaugh stated them false...giving reasonable reason to not take these things as truth...then you could also potentially have a case.
So yes, from a definition stand point they most assuredly did libel and defame Limbaugh. From a law point, its a much more difficult case due to the way we treat public figures. However, unlike most cases of public figures, this one has a slightly more tangiable example of "harm" than simple "loss of reputation".
So no, Limbaugh does not have to "prove" that those comments are false, but would need to prove they were stated knowing they were false or recklessly.
Sorry, I searched google, and I've still yet to show anything that states that Limbaugh must "prove a negative" by "proving" that the statements are false. Nothing's came up with that so far from what I've seen. Only that he must prove damage and that it was done intentionally or recklessly.
So you're saying that Limbaugh has to somehow account for every single positive thing he's ever said anywhere at all to somehow prove that he's telling the truth when he says "I never said that quote"?
That doesn't make any sense at all.
This isn't a case of someone saying "On July 14th 1991 you said the following...." and Limbaugh going "That's not true" where you can go check it.
This is a case of someone saying "Limbaugh said this...." and Limbaugh going "No, I did not....".
And you're saying that somehow the first person is automatically considered to be telling the truth unless Limbaugh can somehow "prove" that he never said something at any point during his entire life?
This would be like a major news writer saying:
"This quote from Barack Obama obviously shows that he's from Kenya
'I was born and raised in Kenya, not in Hawaii'
Obviously, we now have proof that Obama is from Kenya, from his own quote"
and that somehow, some way, that should be considered TRUTH unless Obama can somehow prove he never said those words?
Actually, it is exactly it and until you can learn to stop lying, I'm not interested in a goddamned thing you have to say.
It's "innocent until proven guilty". Since Limbaugh would be making the charge in court, he would have to prove that what is said about him is both inaccurate, and known to be inaccurate.
Again though, we might want to shelve this until a lawyer shows up, since I would bet we are both wrong in some ways, and RightInNYC can clear it up clearly.
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