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As far as what? A woman has a right to an abortion because she could possibly suffer negative consequences if forced to carry a pregnancy to term? No, she doesn’t have that right. Statutorily, a hospital would be required to render lifesaving emergency care, but women don’t have a right to abortions unconditionally.
A right to medical care to protect her life and health. Deaths and health damage from a pregnancy cannot be predicted or prevented.
A right to consent to her own reproductive choices. 9th Amendment right:
You'll see the right to abortion at the top of that list...Dobbs overturned that. But otherwise, that's a list of recognized 9th A rights.
Since the unborn has NO federal legal status to protect...what grounds would the govt have to deny her an abortion?
I'm not sure what you mean by 'unconditionally' but there are some states with no restrictions on 'when" a woman can have an abortion. The only condition I can think of is a federal law against partial birth abortion. But there is no federal law or control over 'when' a woman can have an abortion...regarding either reason or timeframe. If you disagree...please provide it.
What point specifically are you using this to make?
Yeah, and I quoted the Court’s specific language on that point. The “state’s interest” is preventing the mother from killing her fetus. I can’t make it any clearer than that.![]()
That's the wording but it does not state what the state's interest is. Where is the "why?" Why is that in the states' interest?
And btw, once you focus on demanding women carry a pregnancy at the behest of the state...that's involuntary servitude. I'm all for a challenge case that tries to use this as a reason. The 13th Amendment has been suggested by judges before as a foundation for a right to abortion. It was not considered in RvW (RvW was not perfect by any means.) Please explain what right the state has to demand a woman carry a pregnancy in "their" interests?
And so it's not clear...and no one has ever made it clear. IMO that's intentional...but the sentence makes a statement...it does not define what that interest is.
Jeebus.What is the state’s interest in preventing any human being from killing another one? Here it is--again:
Roe v. Wade, p. 154
I mean, the majority opinion doesn't specifically say why people killing other people or potential people is a state concern, but the justices probably assumed that anyone reading their opinion would possess a modicum of common sense.![]()
See above. All you're doing is making an appeal to authority. And Dobbs supersedes RvW...yes or no?
Dobbs enables states to allow women/their Drs to kill her unborn with no due process. No restrictions are listed. Yes or no?
So...you might as well stop using RvW, right?
No, I didn't claim that. I claimed your argument that bodily autonomy is EVERYTHING is nonsense, and I pointed out that Roe only excluded state interests for the First Trimester. Beyond that point, Roe supports my position on bodily autonomy and privacy rights (that they don't outweigh state interests), not yours:
Roe v. Wage, p. 153
Never said bodily autonomy was unlimited. No right is.
See above: why are you using RvW?
The same one it's been from the beginning: a woman does not have an unconditional right to terminate her pregnancy.![]()
Federally, she pretty much does. Dobbs however enables the states to set some.
A woman has rights such as to life, due process, bodily autonomy, and to not be used in involuntary servitude to the state. The states can place restrictions on abortion but they cannot create laws that violate a woman's Const. rights or federal laws. That's stated in the Supremacy Clause.
Why do you think that no states have criminalized having abortions, only providing them? A woman can still perform her own abortion, usually with pills, or drive to another state and have one. In both cases, she faces no criminal charges. Can she go to another state, intentionally kill her baby or toddle or teen, return home and not face criminal charges? Yes or no?
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