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Nothing made everything....

I accept the claim that philosophy invented science. I question the claim that philosophy invented religion. Religion and science are not identical.

I find it curious that either of you seem to be arguing past each other on this concept of what invented what. I'd submit that the DNA molecule invented the brain as an extension of its own method of memory retention, reflected in a more efficient apparatus to assist in evolution, and over time, collective memory invented thought; thought invented problem solving, problem solving evolved into creative thought, and creative thought evolved into language, and so on, and so on.. In some ways, some might use this as a tangible example of the uncaused, cause; certainly the example, if nothing else, serves to help conceptually visualize what an uncaused, cause, might look like, if one were looking for it.

All of which, I might add, does no one any good if one does not have a language, more notably a syntax, that is equally understood, and recognizable by either interested party. ;)

Did that help you two at all? :)


Tim-
 
Not at all. Philosophy not only defines these words, it provides the reasoning for the definition.

Yes it does.

Compositional error fallacy. No one ever said that philosophy defines all terms.

You can't change the meaning of a word by intentionally misusing it.

Yes they do. The meaning of 'evidence' doesn't change.

No, they don't.

No, they don't.



Boy, what an absurd way of looking at things, that, in reality have no bearing on your central philosophy. The mere fact that YOU are presenting your arguments by way of the written word, in a coherent, articulated manner, and by extension, others are able to respond with equally coherent, and articulated language, serves to disprove your entire assertion that dictionaries do not define words. Do you NOT see the error in your logic?


Tim-
 
One thing we can all agree on is...

God did not create same sex intimacies and marriages.
So he sits back watching and listening to the humor about him. He's disturbed about man playing the role of God by aborting babies. Giving free will to man over the years has been the cause of mankind's failures.
same sex
obama
liberal/Demo dictatorships
(gay)Priest
The list goes on and you're right... The above has nothing to do with God.

Wait...:shock:
I forgot... those who challenge are the ones that are doing the screw ups.
 
I find it curious that either of you seem to be arguing past each other on this concept of what invented what. I'd submit that the DNA molecule invented the brain as an extension of its own method of memory retention, reflected in a more efficient apparatus to assist in evolution, and over time, collective memory invented thought; thought invented problem solving, problem solving evolved into creative thought, and creative thought evolved into language, and so on, and so on.. In some ways, some might use this as a tangible example of the uncaused, cause; certainly the example, if nothing else, serves to help conceptually visualize what an uncaused, cause, might look like, if one were looking for it.

All of which, I might add, does no one any good if one does not have a language, more notably a syntax, that is equally understood, and recognizable by either interested party. ;)

Did that help you two at all? :)


Tim-

Well we can never know what an uncaused cause would look like because we have no example of it in our world. Whatever created our universe would have to be utterly unlike than anything in the universe.

But that's really besides the point of what ashurbanipal and ITN were arguing. I think you've missed the broader point of their discussion. ITN has a definition of philosophy, and a belief about its function (primarily that philosophy "does not use outside sources") that ashurbanipal questioned by providing a fairly long list of respected philosophers who used outside sources in their philosophical arguments, including people like Aristotle and Blaise Pascal. ITN responded by claiming that the philosophers listed did not appear to actually be making philosophical arguments, and stated that nearly all universities and modern philosophers do not teach or understand philosophy according to how he defines it. Ashurbanipal asked ITN who qualifies as a philosopher, to which ITN responded "people who make arguments of philosophy". Ashurbanipal noted that the answer was highly evasive and asked for at least one named individual who ITN would classify as a philosopher, but ITN has refused to answer the question on the grounds of a related but different point of ashurbanipal's argument that he sees has being a paradox.

I don't see the paradox in ashurbanipal's argument that ITN sees, but even if it exists, ashurbanipal's question is still germane: what named individuals would ITN classify as philosophers? If Aristotle and Pascal were on the list of philosophers not making arguments of philosophy, who then can be called a philosopher, besides ITN?

I don't see their discussion proceeding any further until that point is answered. I don't really see them 'arguing past each other' the way you described. I see a salient question being avoided by ITN by vehicle of his insistence that all other aspects of ashurbanipal's argument are able to be dismissed until his 'fallacy' is cleared. I think it's pretty clear where ashurbanipal's line of questioning is going and, on appearance, ITN is avoiding it.

But I suppose that's not surprising.
 
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One thing we can all agree on is...

God did not create same sex intimacies and marriages.
So he sits back watching and listening to the humor about him. He's disturbed about man playing the role of God by aborting babies. Giving free will to man over the years has been the cause of mankind's failures.
same sex
obama
liberal/Demo dictatorships
(gay)Priest
The list goes on and you're right... The above has nothing to do with God.

Wait...:shock:
I forgot... those who challenge are the ones that are doing the screw ups.

This is completely off topic and non-sequitur. Are you in the wrong thread?
 
Well we can never know what an uncaused cause would look like because we have no example of it in our world. Whatever created our universe would have to be utterly unlike than anything in the universe.

Can you show the cause of a virtual particle?
 
Can you show the cause of a virtual particle?

Virtual particles are an artifact of quantum field theory and their existence cannot be demonstrated through experimentation. So I am not totally convinced that they are even real. Furthermore, they aren't really 'effects' in the traditional sense of a cause-effect packet. They are uncertainties, not really things 'happening' as a function of time. Also their existence, if they do exist, should cause the vacuum catastrophe. The fact that they don't suggests either they aren't real or our understanding of the system that causes virtual particles to be a function of QM is just very incomplete.

Even if virtual particles are the same kind of event as a traditional C/E packet, the mystery of their origin is not evidence of no cause.
 
Well we can never know what an uncaused cause would look like because we have no example of it in our world. Whatever created our universe would have to be utterly unlike than anything in the universe.


Well, I'm not sure I accept the concept of an uncaused, cause. Doing so, would require that one remove time, as a tangible variable from one's mind. Time, is forever entwined within every fabric of existence; every particle, every piece of matter, and energy. It's hard to imagine, if not entirely impossible, (Although I argue impossibilities do not exist) to think of anything that does not include time, as an elemental, and fundamental part of that thought, or equation. However, if I were to go about trying to prove that an uncaused, cause is possible, I'd wager that it might be found in things that transcend time, and more to your point, and perhaps or my rebuttal, I'd submit that there may indeed be things within this universe that in fact do transcend time. That's what I'd be looking for, if I were a serious student.



But that's really besides the point of what ashurbanipal and ITN were arguing.

As a bystander, my interpretation is similar to yours, however, I tried to cut through the minutia. ITN's logic is clearly circular, perhaps he thinks that circular reasoning, paradoxical as it is, is in fact proof of his own pudding? I'm not convinced either.


I don't see the paradox in ashurbanipal's argument that ITN sees, but even if it exists, ashurbanipal's question is still germane: what named individuals would ITN classify as philosophers? If Aristotle and Pascal were on the list of philosophers not making arguments of philosophy, who then can be called a philosopher, besides ITN?


I don't accept ITN's reasoning, for the above named reasons, however, I have come to more precisely define philosopher myself, over time. In essence, a philosopher is anyone that can make an argument to describe something that is otherwise enigmatic to lay observers. Making sense of the senseless, to put it short. To ITN's credit, I don't think that necessarily requires outside sourcing to accomplish, but to his discredit, well regarded philosophers fall well within the definition I contend is more appropriate.. I would like, if anyone cares, a more precise definition of what one means by "outside-sourcing" as it is being used in this discussion.



I don't see their discussion proceeding any further until that point is answered. I don't really see them 'arguing past each other' the way you described. I see a salient question being avoided by ITN by vehicle of his insistence that all other aspects of ashurbanipal's argument are able to be dismissed until his 'fallacy' is cleared. I think it's pretty clear where ashurbanipal's line of questioning is going and, on appearance, ITN is avoiding it.


Best way to win an argument, (in one's own mind) is to dismiss the other argument, out of mind. ;)


But I suppose that's not surprising.


Well, I'm not passing judgement as to the character of either participant, doing so muddies the water, I've found. I try to take arguments for what they are trying to convey as best I can, and I ask for clarity if I find something confusing. I'm not so confused about this particular argument as much as I am intrigued. ;)


Tim-
 
One thing we can all agree on is...

God did not create same sex intimacies and marriages.
Not among Man, that's true. However, there ARE life forms that have the same sex organs and reproduce nonetheless. Slugs, for example. Plants for another. Man cannot reproduce that way.
So he sits back watching and listening to the humor about him. He's disturbed about man playing the role of God by aborting babies. Giving free will to man over the years has been the cause of mankind's failures.
same sex
obama
liberal/Demo dictatorships
(gay)Priest
The list goes on and you're right... The above has nothing to do with God.

True.
 
Well we can never know what an uncaused cause would look like because we have no example of it in our world. Whatever created our universe would have to be utterly unlike than anything in the universe.
It is quite possible the universe was never created or had a beginning of any kind. It might easily have always existed, and always will. The Theory of the Big Bang is not a theory of science.
But that's really besides the point of what ashurbanipal and ITN were arguing. I think you've missed the broader point of their discussion. ITN has a definition of philosophy, and a belief about its function (primarily that philosophy "does not use outside sources") that ashurbanipal questioned by providing a fairly long list of respected philosophers who used outside sources in their philosophical arguments, including people like Aristotle and Blaise Pascal. ITN responded by claiming that the philosophers listed did not appear to actually be making philosophical arguments, and stated that nearly all universities and modern philosophers do not teach or understand philosophy according to how he defines it. Ashurbanipal asked ITN who qualifies as a philosopher, to which ITN responded "people who make arguments of philosophy". Ashurbanipal noted that the answer was highly evasive and asked for at least one named individual who ITN would classify as a philosopher, but ITN has refused to answer the question on the grounds of a related but different point of ashurbanipal's argument that he sees has being a paradox.

I don't see the paradox in ashurbanipal's argument that ITN sees, but even if it exists, ashurbanipal's question is still germane: what named individuals would ITN classify as philosophers? If Aristotle and Pascal were on the list of philosophers not making arguments of philosophy, who then can be called a philosopher, besides ITN?
Anyone can be a philosopher as long as they are making philosophical arguments. Both Aristotle and Pascal have done so. Philosophy is not a list of 'respected philosophers'. It is the reasoning of an argument. It uses no outside sources. Just because someone like Aristotle or Pascal (or anyone else) presented philosophical arguments, it doesn't mean that everything that comes out of their mouths is philosophy.

ashurbinipal's argument says that it does. He is wrong.
 
Can you show the cause of a virtual particle?

The imagination. A theory created this model (and the name 'virtual particle', which this theory defines). It is not a theory of science. No null hypothesis has been formulated for it, and no test upon the null hypothesis has been conducted.
 
Not at all. Philosophy not only defines these words, it provides the reasoning for the definition.

Yes it does.

Compositional error fallacy. No one ever said that philosophy defines all terms.

You can't change the meaning of a word by intentionally misusing it.

Yes they do. The meaning of 'evidence' doesn't change.

No, they don't.

No, they don't.

Once again you respond with nothing to support your case. This post is 100% “nuh uh.”
 
Listen, man. Almost 100 posts ago, at #505, I posted the following list for the consideration of those who don't quite grasp what philosophy is:



Did you look it over? Did you look at it at all?
Did you ask yourself what it is, or what it might be, that makes all these diverse fields and subjects philosophical in these cases?
Did you ask yourself how it is that there can be a philosophy of humor and a philosophy of immunology? a philosophy of architecture and a philosophy of medicine?
Did you ask yourself what philosophy must be such that all of these diverse fields and subjects commonly fall under it?

Did you ask any of these questions, either of yourself or of anyone else?
I think not.

Do you have any idea what it might mean to submit a practice or discipline to philosophical analysis?
I think not.

It’s irrelevant to what I’m saying. You can apply philosophical thought to whatever you want, but that doesn’t mean philosophy defines the subject. You can apply philosophical concepts to being an engineer but that doesn’t mean philosophers were the ones who decided the definition of the word “cavitation.”

Cavitation is the creation of many tiny bubbles in a fluid due to low pressure and movement, most often in a scenario like moving a propeller through water. Nobody gives a **** what the philosopher wants to claim it means. Engineers use the term the way they want to use the term. They understand the term that way, and if some philosopher waltzes in with an entirely different way to use the word they’re going to ignore the fool.

It’s the same with the word “evidence.” Scientists don’t use the word the way that guy is claiming and really nobody gives a crap what he thinks about it. I’m a pilot. The word “gear” means the wheels I land on, in an aviation context. And nothing else. A philosopher didn’t define that. A philosopher doesn’t get to come in and tell me I’m using the word wrong. I’m not. 100% of pilots understand exactly what I mean when I say the word “gear.” In an aviation context, that’s what it means to the people who matter. To campers, gear means something else entirely. They’re not wrong. They’re in a different context. Also not defined by philosophy.
 
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Philosophy is what it does. And what it does, it does to anything and everything that can be thought about, examined, analyzed, questioned, deconstructed -- science, religion, dance, music, art, morality, politics, law, economics, baseball, dog-walking, tiddly-winks, and so on, right through the gamut of human practice and discipline. The assumptions, theoretical foundations, concepts, and meaning of any human praxis or logos fall within the parameters of philosophical analysis.

Yes, but it does not make **** up about those things. It must work within the parameters of that branch of knowledge. Except for religion where you can make up anything you want and then blame a god for it.
 
What precisely have I misrepresented? Whenever I call out a paradox, I use the poster's own words/assertions... I don't intentionally misrepresent anything...

Yes you do. You simply make up the most absurd comments and when pointed out to you they are absurd instead of giving good reason you play the fallacy card and pretend the fault is with who ever called you out. It is a very dishonest way of debating. You make up any **** you want and then just pretend anyone who disagrees is creating a fallacy.
 
It’s irrelevant to what I’m saying. You can apply philosophical thought to whatever you want, but that doesn’t mean philosophy defines the subject. You can apply philosophical concepts to being an engineer but that doesn’t mean philosophers were the ones who decided the definition of the word “cavitation.”
...
No, I'm afraid philosophy does define a subject, indeed every subject. To the extent that engineering defines itself, engineering is engaged in the philosophy of engineering. Same with science and every other human activity. Your error is to think of philosophy as a kind of outside agency, like the FDA, setting guidelines and defining terms. The philosophy of every field of study emerges from within that field of study. Philosophy is the rational self-examination of every field of human activity and thought.
 
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Every single argument for a creator boils down to the same non sequitur: We exist, therefore we were created by an intelligent being.
And what about the alternative arguments:
1.) we exist; therefore, we came about accidentally
2.) we exist; therefore, matter spontaneously came to life
3.) we exist; therefore, we were not created by an intelligent being

Aren't these arguments nonsequiturs and then some? Indeed, your argument at #3 is not only a nonsequitur, but it is also downright dumb.
 
Yes, but it does not make **** up about those things. It must work within the parameters of that branch of knowledge. Except for religion where you can make up anything you want and then blame a god for it.
Should we dignify this post with a reply?
Nah.
See #617 and live vicariously.
 
Anyone can be a philosopher as long as they are making philosophical arguments. Both Aristotle and Pascal have done so. Philosophy is not a list of 'respected philosophers'. It is the reasoning of an argument. It uses no outside sources. Just because someone like Aristotle or Pascal (or anyone else) presented philosophical arguments, it doesn't mean that everything that comes out of their mouths is philosophy.

ashurbinipal's argument says that it does. He is wrong.

Well...at least now you're trying to argue. As I see it, the issues are these:

1. You've got your own definition of philosophy, philosophical argument, and so on...which you can have, but at the risk of your views being irrelevant to what anyone else is doing.

2. Similarly, your statements in favor of your view are just apparently attempts to save an ad hoc principle. That is, there doesn't appear to be any reason to accept your views about who is and is not a philosopher (none you've given anyway) other than the principle you've offered (no outside sources!). Since this principle isn't something so basic as an axiom of logic that everyone just kinda "gets," your argument is circular, and hence fallacious.

3. Nothing in my position implies that "everything that comes out of a philosopher's mouth is philosophy" (nor did I say that philosophy is a list of respected philosophers). Philosophers use outside sources while doing philosophy, as anyone who is reasonably widely read in the field would know. So, again, you'll need to actually argue your case if you want reasonable readers to accept your views.

4. Finally, I think something needs to be said about your behavior. You seem to think that imperious--and frankly, rude--pronouncements are all you need to post. You don't help your credibility by, for example, claiming that credentials claimed on internet boards are worthless, and then turning around and claiming (apparently) that you and maybe a few other privileged and like-minded individuals alone understand philosophy, while everyone else who thinks they at least kinda understand it are idiots who are totally unfamiliar with what real philosophy is. If you were actually familiar with philosophy, for example, you'd have had a more detailed response to my lists right off the bat, and you'd probably have explained your use of Pascal in light of his semi-frequent gospel references and your "no outside sources!" principle. Your credibility is further damaged by your other non-standard uses of terms (predicate rather than proposition, undefine rather than misdefine, paradox rather than inconsistency or contradiction, etc.). It is still further damaged by the different ways in which you treat various posts. You're quick to respond to every single point of some, but respond to just one or two of mine, avoiding all the ones that would obviously land you in hot water. You seem to be betting that, over time, no one will bother to trace back through your conversations--which is probably a good bet in this day and age.

I'm only responding here because you've posted something relatively novel. If you respond as you usually have (by simply repeating, ab decretum, what you've already decreed) expect silence from me. If you can argue your case, I'm happy to continue discussion. I'm more open than might seem to be the case to the possibility that contemporary philosophers aren't really philosophers, for example--but you'll have to actually give some reason to think so. Not just denounce them and claim that I must not be familiar with philosophy.
 
Yes, but it does not make **** up about those things.
It studies how and why we reason in those areas...

It must work within the parameters of that branch of knowledge.
Yes, philosophy must not make use of outside sources.

Except for religion where you can make up anything you want and then blame a god for it.
Like the Big Bang Theory? The Theory of Evolution? The Theory of Abiogenesis? ... Think about what you're asserting there, good buddy... ;)
 
Yes you do. You simply make up the most absurd comments and when pointed out to you they are absurd instead of giving good reason you play the fallacy card and pretend the fault is with who ever called you out.
Argument of the Stone fallacy... You are claiming my comments to be absurd without any counterargument.

It is a very dishonest way of debating.
Actually, my debate style is a very honest and rational debate style. It keeps focus on the substance of arguments and notes the logical errors that people make.

...deleted 'you're lying' mantra...
 
Anyone can make up their own branch of philosophy.
 
And what about the alternative arguments:
1.) we exist; therefore, we came about accidentally
2.) we exist; therefore, matter spontaneously came to life
3.) we exist; therefore, we were not created by an intelligent being

Aren't these arguments nonsequiturs and then some? Indeed, your argument at #3 is not only a nonsequitur, but it is also downright dumb.

Feel better?
 
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