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16:27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
16:28 Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.
So what do all y'all Christian folk think?
Common attempts to explain this apparent discrepancy are that it refers to the transfiguration, the fall of Jeruselam in 70 AD, the Pentacost, the Ressurection, or the spread of the Gospel.
The immediatly apparent meaning is that "the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works" while some of the folks he was saying this to are still alive.
I think the most defensible position is that there is some 2000 year old dude still wandering around, probably listening to Led Zepplin on his ipod right now, waiting for Jesus to come back and reward every man according to his works.