Re: How Do YOU Interpret The 2nd Amendment? [W:199]
No "hinder" does not involve any absolute prevention of a thing.
I provided for you the 1806 definition of the word HINDER that you have chosen to fixate upon. It clearly stated that HINDER meant to stop or stay.
You have offered
nothing to support your view on the term and its meaning.
And there is nothing whatsoever to support your contention about "infringe", not even in your referenced dictionary definition.
I provided you two different dictionaries - 1806 and the definitive and authoritative 1828 Webster s. You provided
nothing.
I provided the exact definitions from both. You provided
nothing.
I took each part of each definition and demonstrated what it meant to the right being discussed. You provided
nothing.
I can speak with at least a little authority on this matter, as I have a degree in English literature and have published writings on the matter of contextual meaning of phrasings in American history.
If you are offering yourself as an Authority on the terms involved or an Authority on definitions, I would be more than happy to examine your credentials and we all can determine if you qualify. Without that important step, all you are doing is making an Appeal to Authority with yourself in the chair as the arbiter of these matters and that is ridiculous.
If you had been referencing something such as the "regulate" regarding the Interstate Commerce clause, or the reference to "considered as" in the 1790 Naturalization Act, you would have a point that there is significant difference in the connotation of words, but not at all in this regard.
Neither has anything to do with the Second Amendment or the meaning of the term INFRINGED as it existed in that era of American history.
The positive mandate of the 2nd Amendment that the right to both KEEP and bear arms "shall not be infringed" involves no physical dictate on history, nor reality, and actual fact such that it would prohibit the real infringement of the right from occurring.
That is your opinion and yet again - you offer
nothing to support it.
Similarly the "right to LIFE, liberty and Pursuit of Happiness" is no guarantee that murder will not occur. And the ability to take another's life does not disprove it as an unalienable right.
First, you are invoking a 'right' that is not listed in the Constitution. Second, you are committing the fallacy of False Equivalency in your comparison as it has nothing at all to do with the specific language of the Second Amendment.
In fact none of the courts that have supported the actual infringement of the right have ever used your "logic" about the meaning of "infringed". And it is just those legislatures and courts that our founders sought to protect us from by the positive mandate that the right "shall not be infringed" in any way!
I never said that I was quoting any Court who ruled on the right using the Webster's definitions from 1806 and 1828. What I said is that the incrementalists who believe that small encroachments are wrong because no Court has ever ruled that the Amendment is free from restrictions or regulations. Thus my view - that the Second Amendment bars the government from creating an environment where the right to keep and bear arms cannot be destroyed, contravened or result in a failure to be fulfilled is indeed alive and well as the practical result of countless laws and rulings where gun control measures are found to be perfectly legal and constitutional. Such matters are as I have always stated they are - the details of public policy to be decided by the duly elected representatives of the American people
And every judge and every Court and every legislator who ever supported or voted for such measures is consistent with my view as that is their practical result.
Implying that such a test might be valid is nothing but supremely jejune, sophomoric reasoning.
Actually I have just shown that not only is is valid, but it is also the law of the land.