- Joined
- Jun 4, 2010
- Messages
- 133,429
- Reaction score
- 43,228
- Location
- Miami
- Gender
- Male
- Political Leaning
- Independent
So what you are saying that there has to be an INTENT to scare a certain segment of the population, but whether a person's actually DO scare a certain segment of the population is really NOT taken into account, such as in the case of the serial rapist.
No. The motive must be, exclusively, to strike fear into the target population, regarding which the offender must have membership or material that targets the victim.
I agree that in certain instances it might be appropriate, such as a KKK lynching or something to that effect, but I believe I've heard it applied (or tried to be applied) in other situations where the "intent" might not be so clear.
Read the laws. Basing ones opinion on the worst of the attempts to prosecute is not to understand the law.
Last edited: