Why do you believe that's true?
Because debt reduction has been attempted in the past, and any period of 3 or more years of debt reduction has resulted in economic depression.
For example....
1804-1812: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 48%. Depression began 1807.
1817-1821: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 29%. Depression began 1819.
1823-1836: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 99%. Depression began 1837.
1852-1857: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 59%. Depression began 1857.
1867-1873: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 27%. Depression began 1873.
1880-1893: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 57%. Depression began 1893.
1920-1930: U.S. Federal Debt reduced 36%. Depression began 1929.
Now let's look at your chart....
At the top you claim a "growth rate", what is it that's growing?
Respectfully, I don't think you understand the accounting of what's really happening. I'm happy to explore this with you to see if it is you or I that is misunderstanding.
If you respond, please do me the courtesy of answering at least this question:
Can we agree that
spending, individual, cooperate or government, always results in another group or individual receiving an income? Please don't get fancy, I'm asking a fundamentals question, the question is, does spending=income. Just to be sure we're 110% clear what I'm asking, if I spend $20 and buy something and get something in return for my $20, then my spending has equaled someone else's income dollar for dollar. Giving, remitting, repayment etc, is not
spending so please don't get confused.
You give a period of 20 years and you want to maintain similar spending levels. This would result in a deflationary spiral and a deep economic crisis. Why?
The best way to understand is to simply look at the last 20 years.
I grabbed data from 2000-2020:
The population has increased by 50 million
Of that roughly 63% or 31.5 million net new people of working age enter the workforce and are looking for work. So between 2000-and 2020 there are 31 million more workers competing for jobs and ultimately money.
However, that's not the end of the story, because as I'm sure you know, technology is always making it possible for fewer workers to achieve the same level of output, ofr the same number of workers to achieve greater output.
Said another way if we have 100 workers and they are given tools that enhances their output by 50%, then we can say that compared to the period prior to the change in technology, they are doing the work of 150 people. Of course if there is only enough work for the output of 100 people and output increases by 50%, then it now takes 67 people to do all the work that needs to be done and 33 are left unemployed. Unless the 66 get to share the salaries of the 33 that were laid off, there is now less consumption capacity because the salaries of the remaining workers is saved. Now, of course, the savings was likely used to buy the technology and technology employs people, however, in order to be worthwhile, the net when totaling everything is fewer workers. But we'll set that fact aside for a sec.
The real numbers based on Census data and
data here that shows increases in real output are 72% increase between 2000and 2020. This means that we take 31 million more people x 72% and we get an increase in potential productive output of 53 million. That means, that either the economy can supply the equivalent of 53 million more workers worth of productivity OR if productivity levels remain the same it now takes over 8 million less peopleor about 23 million people to do the work of 31 million compared to 2000 when you began holding spending the same and increasing revenue.
Now, looking at your chart, I don't know exactly what
you mean by revenue, but as long as that money is coming from the private sector and paid to the government, then it is true to say that if the difference of revenue-spending is
positive, that means that money is flowing out of the private sector and to the government, reducing the amount of money (all other things being equal) circulating in the private sector by the positive amount.
Since you hold spending flat, we need just look at your government surplus and total it.....You want to remove $40 trillion dollars from the economy. You want $40 trillion dollars to be taken from the private sector and applied to the government's outstanding debt, which by the way does not result in the government having $40 trillion
more dollars it allows the government to reduce it's debt, or +40 trillion applied to -$0 trillion = zero.
Thus your plan would result in MASSIVE unemployment, the destruction if tens of thousands perhaps million of companies while the government institutes your austerity plan and all for ZERO real gain.
If I need to show this in a spreadsheet, let me know.
Thoughts?