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Simple if you'd read the article it explains it. An inefficient vote is any vote that is cast for the losing side in a district or any vote that is case above and beyond what was needed to win a district. If you look at the total # of inefficient votes cast be both parties in a state and there is a difference of more than 7% between the parties we know that the map as a whole is unfair and gives one political party a clear and sustained advantage in the state.But the whole point of Gerrymandering on the Federal level is for the purpose of maximizing HOUSE seats, and HOUSE seats are relegated to a specific voting district anyway.
How can you have voting "inefficiency" it a House race that is determined by district popular vote?
Do any states not have state wide Senate races?
The Senate is an entirely different problem. We're focusing mostly on house districts here although this could help prevent election rigging at the state and local level too I'm sure.