3leftsdoo
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If someone were advocating the killing of the President of the United States of America (but wasn't actually in the process of attempting to do that themselves), would they have an inalienable 1st Amendment right to do so? (NOTE - The identity of the specific President the killing of whom was being advocated is NOT specified.)
At some point "liberty" becomes "licence".
Pretty much; it could depend, however. Example?
(Note - then it's a silly, hopelessly undefined question; you have to provide an ACTUAL instance, and that would inevitably include an actual president.)
Liberty becomes wha'? Naw.