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In some jurisdictions that is true, in others it means only anal sex, and still in others it means only forced anal sex. In some states it only applies to male on male anal sex in prison, and in those states it is differentiated from oral copulation or forced oral copulation.
So when you say "legally speaking" you must indicate which jurisdictions. Laws are not that vague. In this country vague laws are not enforceable.
Really cruelty? Hmmm.... so Sodom was destroyed (biblically speaking) for "cruelty" but Rome got a pass?????
Sorry, but the reason I don't make these arguments from what is "biblical" is because there can be as many interpretations on that as there are stars in the skies. Which is why your logic can be defeated 'naturally' ---- that which nature demonstrates.
I find it ironic that the gay rights folks even venture into biblical arguments because the bible does not make your case on any front. If "gay love" was a positive and normal occurrence, there would be examples of that in the bible. Why would the text leave that part out with all that is said in the bible? So to use your argument (biblically) it is your claim that Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed because they were inhospitable to strangers? Wow! What kind of angry God is that?
Any reading of Romans 1 should answer your questions..... that is if you are making "biblically speaking" arguments.
I agree. The Bible doesnn't support sodomy or homosexuality. But God has killed people in the OT (for getting too close to the tabernacle. That was a no-no if you were unauthorized). But He has that right.