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‘You should have died in the Holocaust’: Neo-Nazi harassment is not free speech, judge rules

White folks too, if they deserve the label.
Lmao, so what's the problem you have with someone else doing it to black cops? Are cops above being 'n-words', apdst? Lay down the rules for those of us who aren't as black as you.



Sent from Trump Plaza's basement using Putin's MacBook.
 
Irrelevant. The law of the land specifically states that everyone will be equally protected by the law.

Those who support terrorists and murderers don’t get to soes their poison without consequence bud, and nowhere in the Constitution does it say they are.
 

Did not read the whole thread - but that was in the Judges decisions. Hats off to you for finding that key piece of the suit
 
Lmao, so what's the problem you have with someone else doing it to black cops? Are cops above being 'n-words', apdst? Lay down the rules for those of us who aren't as black as you.



Sent from Trump Plaza's basement using Putin's MacBook.

Why don't you have a problem with it?
 
Why don't you have a problem with it?
I'm pointing out you have no problem with regular people being called 'the n word'. Why can't they be 'n-words' if they are cops? I am trying to get some understanding of how you got to this point. What about f(for the grown ups at home, the word here is faggot) word? Can whites and blacks be f words too? I bet the answer is yes. Kikes? Lesbos? Ragheads? Men women, Jews, atheists and Muslims can be those too right?

Let me know if you need a lifeline.

Sent from Trump Plaza's basement using Putin's MacBook.
 
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I read your post and the article. I caught the attempt at nuance in both, and, if the harassment is physical in nature or if it's verbal and the words cause or result in physical harm to whom they are directed, then they may or may not be protected speech under the First Amendment.

However, if the words are just words, and the words do not result in physical harm to whom they are directed, then they are protected. Some physical acts are seen as speech, even if there are no words used. As an example, the burning a US flag by protesters who are protesting a group of US veterans could very reasonably be described and defined by the veterans and others as harassment of the veterans by the protesters, yet it's still protected speech because no actual harm was created or resulted from the act. There are thousands of other examples.

Verbal harassment, and even some physical acts of harassment, that don't cause or result in physical harm, is ... protected speech.

Edit: For you and anyone else that is actually interested in the facts, here's a rather left leaning group's opinion: https://www.aclu.org/other/freedom-expression
 
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Thanks for the civil responses. eace

But first of all, I don't see why or that the harm must be "physical" and not just harm. If someone's kids are on the receiving end of harassment, and become emotionally unstable, too scared to attend school, and that result was intended or at least reasonably anticipated (as here) is that not 'harm?'

I also read the link, and here's what I saw as applicable to this conversation:


I agree with all that, including the bolded, which is the position I was trying to make here, and which I thought the article did a decent job of distinguishing actually.
 
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Emotional harm is subjective and immeasurable for criminal court purposes, and feelings are not protected by the Constitution, so the government cannot charge emotional harm as a crime, unless the harm is measurable in physical manifestations of the harm. Civil court is different and emotional harm can be used by a jury to award civil damages from one party to another. The First Amendment only protects us from government infringement, not from civil liability claimed by a person or private entity. So a person or group has civil law remedies for potential harm that is not physical harm that the can pursue themselves by civil suit in court.
 

Given the source do you expect otherwise.

honesty is not high on the list right now.
 
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