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Why the US Govt owes $8 trillion

Iriemon said:
I don't disagree, just making the obvious point that you aren't paid interest when you own equities. I agree with you points, tho' the equity market isn't quite as directly interest sensitive as bonds, for example. The value of a debt instrument like a bond is directly affected by the interest rate -- the affect on the value of a stock is not quite as direct. If interest rates go up a little, your bond is immediately worth less. Not necessarily your stock though I agree that the interest rates affect affect expected rates of return and the market as a whole.

I don't necessarily disagree either. The difference is that from a legal or finanacial point of view, you are absolutely right. But I believe this forum is about economics. An economist looks at all the interrelations on the marketplace, and to him there is no essential difference between an equity and a bond. Both involve the exchange of present goods for future goods, and both earn an interest return after a given period of time.

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Same thing can happen in an inflationary vs. deflationary economy.

Like I said, no new wealth is created or destroyed in an inflationary/deflationary economy. I thought you agreed with this?

I understand, though there is a general relationship here -- if there is monetary inflation there is likely to be general price inflation.

Absolutely, but monetary adjustments are not prerequisites for changes in the price level. See above.

What do you suggest in the meantime, a barter system? How does the market choose the commodity upon which currency is based? Other than gold or silver, what would you use? Shells? How do you price items in the economy? If I go to a McDonalds and buy a burger, do I pay with gold, silver, or some other commodity. How are goods and services priced?

Of course, in the beginning of the catallactic system, most people relied on barter. This is obviously a very inefficient form of exchange, for different reasons (indivisibility, non-durability of certain goods, non-marketable, double coincedence of wants, etc.,). Such inefficiency leads to the selection of the most marketable goods as media of exchange. When one media of exchange knocks out the others, we have our money standard.

And that's how money came to exist - chosen by commerce, not the state. Historically, precious metals like gold and silver have been selected as the best media of exchange.

Sorry, but I won't bother going into how goods and services are priced. That's a whole other topic, and it does not necessarily require monetary theory.

I am not sure what you mean by the "quantity theory" of money. My only point here is that you need some form of tender. You can't use gold, you can't use silver. The coins would be too small. You have to use some representative currency for the base commodity. You have suggested wharehouse receipts but haven't really explained how that would work.

Storing it in a bank worked only because there was a substitute and representative legal tender -- dollars. I am not aware of any major economy that did not have a legal currency which was the claim to gold. But you seem to be suggesting we do away with a legal currency with a pure commodity standard.

What money substitutes are you talking about that worked well?

In recent history? None. You'd have to go back quite a few centuries before you find a monetary system which didn't have a state constantly intervening. In any case, there's really not much to explain about money substitutes. The concept is self-explanatory. If you could pose some specific questions, I'll answer them.
 
OK, I'm going to chew on this a bit. I'm thinking economy growing, needs capital to do it part of that means more credit is demanded, and if the money supply is stable, the real interest rate increases. You're saying a fixed money supply doesn't effect that equation because purchasing power balances out.
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The real interest rate does not increase unless social time preferences increase. The money supply has no effect on the interest rate, unless it is being manipulated by the government via credit expansion (again, the only form of monetary inflation which can have that effect).

Wouldn't it be better to have a money supply expanding at roughly the rate of the economy so there would be no need for PPM adjustments? Rather than a deflationary situation were prices decrease, a stable situation where prices don't change?

Setting aside the difficulty of achieving this "ideal" (the PPM cannot be measured!), it is important to ask whether such a state of affairs is even desirable. Again, the money supply is one of four factors which affect the PPM. If the supply of goods increases due to a net investment in the economy, real wages will rise as prices fall. If more people wish to add to their cash balance and "hoard", prices fall. And vice versa for both situations. You are proposing a supposedly "stable situation" in which individuals could not benefit from the productivity gains of industrial progress, and in which they could not demand more money because any increased demand for money will change price levels. Do you really want that?

Which recession are you talking about that represents the devastating consequence of your bubbles? 2001 as a result of the stock market bubble? I agree there was a bubble, caused by internet frenzy. But hardly a devasting rescession. Inflation adjusted GDP never fell over a year and unemployment topped out at 6%.

I suppose it depends on what you see as devastating, but I don't think I used that term. The point is that the effects of credit expansion were quite apparent during 2000-01, and during previous recessions.

I would never posit that credit expansion leads us along a magical road to properity. In fact the contrary can happen if it is too great. I questioned whether (modest) credit expansion creates an unsustainable boom. I see your point. But isn't another problem with credit expansion (based on interest rate manipulation by the Fed) is that it creates the danger of inflation by expanding the money supply? Which is why the Fed is increasing rates now, to prevent that. But your point a commodity standard can do this better.

The degree of credit expansion is simply unimportant for our purposes. We are here concerned with the effects that every dollar of inflated credit will have on the economy. How much damage the central bank does in the long run, will depend on its current policies.

Also, under a commodity standard there is no problem of the boom-bust cycle. Business fluctuations will still exist, but they will reflect actual changes in savings and investment levels rather than a huge amount of fiat credit being dumped onto the time market. And we can safely assume they will be less severe and less sporadic.

I would note as well that in an economy where the state does not expand credit, but inflates money in other ways, there is no boom-bust cycle either. Of course, political control of the money supply will have other devastating effects on the economy, and I'm certainly not advocating it.

Is there something inherently bad about modest expansion of credit, if it does not increase the money so much as to create inflation?

Expanding the money supply always creates inflation. Where it does not, it has been offset by the other factors I was referring to earlier.

Only if they have gold reserves to do it. How could they expand credit and lend more money if they don't have it?

It's possible under a system of fractional reserve banking, which is what we've had since almost the beginning of the Republic.

Are you saying as a factual proposition that business cycles were not worse, or agreeing they were worse but not because of who controls the money supply?

I would say recessions in the 19th century were about as bad as the ones in the early 20th century. But there was still credit expansion in those days, regardless of the gold standard, and in some ways it was worse than it is today.

I think see with your point in concept. I question that the relatively modest monetary growth has been a major cause of these cycles. Why doesn't the PPM equalization also pertain to the investment markets? If there is credit expansion, the increase in money is used for all kinds of things, from paying employees to goods and services to investment. If the credit is eased too much, too much money causes the PPM equilbrium to adjust and prices go up. Why is more money relatively invested so as to cause malinvestments?


Because it's not primarily the PPM which is the problem, it's the interest rate. In most cases, the PPM component to the interest rate is highly temporary and disappears very quickly. The problem is, the market interest rate (excluding the PPM component) is distorted by credit expansion. There is an illusion that more savings in the economy exist than actually do.

In other words, there is an idea that an inceased supply of present goods exists on the time market. The nature of credit expansion means that its primary damage will be done to the interest rate. And to repeat one more time, credit expansion is the only form of monetary inflation which can have these damaging effects.

Another question, aren't there times when an artificial credit expansion can be a good thing? In a recession for example where you are trying to encourage economic activity?

And create more, new malinvestments while the markets are trying to get rid of the old ones? I don't think so ;)

It is important to understand that the recession exists to correct the mistakes of the unsustainable boom. If you start another unsustainable boom during the recovery period of recession, then you are just repeating the cycle. One day, we need to decide whether we want to break the cycle or continue the current course.
 
A very, very interesting thread. I know you guys haven't posted to it in quite a while, but maybe if I make a couple of brief observations on a just a couple of things that jumped out at me as I scrolled thru...

The supply of any good is determined ultimately by consumer demand and social value scales. This basic law holds true for money as well.

Well, no it doesn't hold true with the money supply. We have a 'fractional reserve' system here in the US. That means that banks only have to hold in reserve a relatively small percentage of the deposits that they take in. The balance is either loaned or invested. These loans and investments create additional deposits and the cycle is repeated on and on. This fractional reserve mechanism means that the banking system can indeed 'create' money. I'll try and gin up a numerical example, if that will help. The reserve requirement is one of the more 'brute force' tools of monetary policy.

There was a question about interest rates in '79...

Paul Volcker was determined to get the US economy out its inflationary spiral (13% in '79). To do so, he championed a switch in monetary policy focus to a reserves targeting policy. This meant that reserves would be added or drained from the system in whatever amounts deemed necessary to lower inflation and just as important, inflationary expectations. Except for the rates that were directly under the Fed's control - like the discount rate, which Volcker immediately increased a full percentage point to 12% - interest rates were left to go wherever the market took them. Consequently, the bank prime rate eventually topped out at around 21.5%, 30 year Treasury bonds peaked with the 14% of 2011 at a bit over 15%, and even 2 year notes reached 15%. Eventually, inflation and inflationary expectations began to subside and Paul Volcker became something of a folk hero in the financial markets.

There is a huge amount more that can be said about both these topics. Anybody care?
 
oldreliable67 said:
Ether: The supply of any good is determined ultimately by consumer demand and social value scales. This basic law holds true for money as well.

Well, no it doesn't hold true with the money supply. We have a 'fractional reserve' system here in the US. That means that banks only have to hold in reserve a relatively small percentage of the deposits that they take in. The balance is either loaned or invested. These loans and investments create additional deposits and the cycle is repeated on and on. This fractional reserve mechanism means that the banking system can indeed 'create' money. I'll try and gin up a numerical example, if that will help. The reserve requirement is one of the more 'brute force' tools of monetary policy.

I agree that equation doesn't hold true for the money supply at all -- if you are talking about a paper based currency. Not only for the reason you mentioned (I think the multiplying factor from the reserve system is 7x or something like that, there is an article in Wiki that explains it) but there is no limit to the supply of money the Fed could print.

I think Ether when he wrote that was talking about a situation where a commody (ie gold) was the monetary standard.

There was a question about interest rates in '79...

Paul Volcker was determined to get the US economy out its inflationary spiral (13% in '79). To do so, he championed a switch in monetary policy focus to a reserves targeting policy. This meant that reserves would be added or drained from the system in whatever amounts deemed necessary to lower inflation and just as important, inflationary expectations. Except for the rates that were directly under the Fed's control - like the discount rate, which Volcker immediately increased a full percentage point to 12% - interest rates were left to go wherever the market took them. Consequently, the bank prime rate eventually topped out at around 21.5%, 30 year Treasury bonds peaked with the 14% of 2011 at a bit over 15%, and even 2 year notes reached 15%. Eventually, inflation and inflationary expectations began to subside and Paul Volcker became something of a folk hero in the financial markets.

There are two factors at play here. I think Ether would argue that the level of money supply has no long term affect on the interest rates, because the demand for money is not based on the supply of money -- it all balances out. However, we had some discussion as to whether in the short term a constriction of the money supply might have an effect on interest rates. But pertinent to that question is the way the Fed restricts money supply -- by increasing the fed funds rate -- artificially manipulating the interest rates. I don't believe it was the artificial manipulation of the interest rates directly that broke the inflation spiral in 79-80, but that the expansion of the money supply ceased (thru the vehicle of manipulating the interest rate). The result was a spike in interest rates -- but within 6 month to a year the rates had gone back down -- the system having equalibrilized to the lower money supply.

That's my story and I'm sticking to it. :)
 
I don't believe it was the artificial manipulation of the interest rates directly that broke the inflation spiral in 79-80, but that the expansion of the money supply ceased (thru the vehicle of manipulating the interest rate)

Interest rates weren't 'manipulated' per se in 79-80. The Fed took quite direct action using 1) those interest rates that they did directly control - the discount rate - were raised immediately, 2) the process of draining reserves from the system accomplished the rest. Reserves were targeted and rates went wherever the market sent them.

The afternoons of the release of the money numbers, we gathered around the newswires, most of us in the trading room having placed our bets in the office pool as to what the numbers would be. We were total slaves to those numbers! Those of us that were trading also had sometimes placed rather large bets with the firm's capital as well! Won some, lost some.
 
oldreliable67 said:
Interest rates weren't 'manipulated' per se in 79-80. The Fed took quite direct action using 1) those interest rates that they did directly control - the discount rate - were raised immediately, 2) the process of draining reserves from the system accomplished the rest. Reserves were targeted and rates went wherever the market sent them.

The afternoons of the release of the money numbers, we gathered around the newswires, most of us in the trading room having placed our bets in the office pool as to what the numbers would be. We were total slaves to those numbers! Those of us that were trading also had sometimes placed rather large bets with the firm's capital as well! Won some, lost some.

Yours is the more accurate description. Did the Fed increase the reserve requirements of banks at this time as well?
 
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