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Why the Supreme Court should find for the Judges power, and Birthright Citizenship.

There is no window into Trump’s heart about racism, but his actions, policies and lies speak loud and clear of his appeals to bigotry.

See: Ending DEI, South African white "refugees", the Madison Square Garden campaign rally speeches, "some very fine people," Edolf's salute excitedly greeting the new administration, etc etc etc.

"When someone shows you who they are, believe them."
 
Oh, you got called out for falsely claiming Trump is racist so time for denial. You wrote "provided they are white" learn to WRITE more carefully.

Oh no, Trump is definitely a racist as the immigration policy regarding South Africans, that I alluded too, shows

However, this in no way demonstrates that "US legal immigration being exclusively white" is true

As I said, you need to read more carefully before responding and making foolish posts.
 
In contrast to the anti Trump invective the objections to South African refugees are purely based on race.
Nice try at avoiding the issue. Trump allowed White South Africans in as refugees, while slamming the door on darker skinned refugees already approved for resettlement in the United States. That was the point of critical commentary.
 
Can you try this again, in a more coherent form? I think I'm getting what you're saying, but I'm just unsure enough to ask you to rephrase it.

My post is coherent. For whatever manner of “coherent” is applicable to you I do not know nor seek to discover.

Identify specifically what of my post to you requires more “coherence”?
 
Whether you care or not, it is what it is.

And being right of center is NOT equivalent to being a "Constitutionalist."

Sometimes, being a Constitutionalist requires that you go to the right, sometimes to the left, sometimes to the middle. Neither the right, left or middle own the "Constitutionalist" title.

And attempting to paint Roberts as left of center is patent bull shit. He is right of center, clearly so. And butt hurt over Barrett's decision in a couple of cases does not put her to the left either.

And originalism, as practiced in particular by Thomas and Alito is NOT strict adherence to the Constitution. Textualism is the proper first approach to interpretation. If there is vagueness, then it is permissible to inquire into the statutory history or constitutional drafting history.

Originalism as practiced and promoted by Thomas and Scalia encompasses wholesale historical fishing expeditions. And approach that has led to Thomas's ludicrous gun jurisprudence, which could have been resolved in a far simpler manner in favor of gun rights.

Originalism as practiced by Thomas and Alito is no better than the living Constitution bull crap practiced by some on the left and for the same reason. It parses meanings to get to the end desired by the jurist. Textualism takes a jurist to a conclusion that the jurist might not particularly like, as was the case with Felix Frankfurter.

Just read the ****ing Constitutional text as written and apply it.

That is literally all it ****ing takes.
Originalism as practiced and promoted by Thomas and Scalia encompasses wholesale historical fishing expeditions. And approach that has led to Thomas's ludicrous gun jurisprudence, which could have been resolved in a far simpler manner in favor of gun rights.…Textualism takes a jurist to a conclusion that the jurist might not particularly like, as was the case with Felix Frankfurter.

To be sure, any method of interpretation, Textualism, Original Meaning (Scalia), Original Intent (Thomas and Alito), Constitutionalist, literalism, Living Constitution, etc, in practice have flaws. As you astutely phrased it, “as practiced” is the indictment of the person’s/people’s application of the methodology of Original Meaning. Textualist aren’t immune from the sin of improperly practicing Textualism.

Scalia despised Original Intent and was subjected to considerable derision from Scalia. See, “A Matter of Interpretation: Federal Courts and the Law,” by Scalia, 1997.

Scalia was a Textualist, as he defined the word in his book. Nothing more than a Textualist approach of plain text meaning of “nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law” is necessary to understand the States can deprive people of liberty with adherence to Due Process. The plain text doesn’t protect any liberty as sacrosanct and more than due process is needed to justify a deprivation.

Yet, occasionally the plain text wording doesn’t yield its meaning and thus necessitates more than a Textualist approach. What does the word “speech” mean in the 1st amendment? What did the word include, exclude? Expression? Symbols? Hand signals? Colors? Does “speech” include statements, oral or written, as forbiddden by the rules of evidence? Does “speech” include foul language and expletives in court and in pleadings? What does petition the Government mean? Does the phrase include the filing of a complaint, pleading, in court?

To answer those questions and others requires more than than Text. For the Original Meaning advocate, they seek the reasonable public meaning, a reasonable meaning, at or near the time the law was drafted as supported by the historical evidence.

Your romanticizing of Textualism “takes a jurist to a conclusion that the jurist might not particularly like” is true of Original Meaning, Original Intent, maybe Living Constitution, etc.

Scalia’s application of Original Meaning led him to repudiate the pro-life belief the word “person” in the 14th amendment included the unborn, despite his strong Catholic beliefs to the contrary. His Original Meaning approach led him to a favorable to the defendant ruling that the confrontation clause required the witness testify in person at trial for the admission of all testimonial statements unless the witness is unavailable and previously subjected to cross examination of the witness under oath.

Textualism is a wise approach, but so is Original Meaning when Textualism meaning does not provide a meaning that reasonably resolves the issue and use of Original Meaning in such a circumstance is preferred to the alternatives.
 
See: Ending DEI, South African white "refugees", the Madison Square Garden campaign rally speeches, "some very fine people," Edolf's salute excitedly greeting the new administration, etc etc etc.
DEI is a system of racial quotas. The definition of racism.

Objecting to refugees because of their race is embracing racism.

Still unaware of what an insult comedian like the one at the MSG rally does?

The "very fine people" smear has long been debunked.

Claiming someone raising their hand is a Nazi salute just shows the desperate obsession with manufacturing grievances


"When someone shows you who they are, believe them."
When someone parades around their confirmation bias citing smears and deceptions as evidence, they are not to be believed.
 
Nice try at avoiding the issue. Trump allowed White South Africans in as refugees, while slamming the door on darker skinned refugees already approved for resettlement in the United States. That was the point of critical commentary.
There is no avoiding the false claims of racism in condemning Trump's decision to admit refugees because they are white.
 
Oh no, Trump is definitely a racist as the immigration policy regarding South Africans, that I alluded too, shows

However, this in no way demonstrates that "US legal immigration being exclusively white" is true

As I said, you need to read more carefully before responding and making foolish posts.
Repeating your smear claiming racism and denying "provided they are white" as an allegation of racism doesn't make the race baiting vanish. If as you claim, Trump only favors refugees provided they are white it ought to be reflected in the make up of legal immigrants admitted leading to exclusively white legal immigration.
 
There is no avoiding the false claims of racism in condemning Trump's decision to admit refugees because they are white.
It’s not the admission of White South Africans than caused the accusation of racism. It’s that admission, coupled with the denial of admission to other, darker skinned refugees already approved for admission. He suspended all refugee admissions — except for these. Add to that Trump’s of other actions and comments (“shit hole countries”), his spreading of false information on Black on White homicide, and there you have it. Who knows what is in his heart, but his discrimination in this case and elsewhere gives rise to the accusations you’re complaining about.
 
DEI is a system of racial quotas. The definition of racism.

Objecting to refugees because of their race is embracing racism.

Still unaware of what an insult comedian like the one at the MSG rally does?

The "very fine people" smear has long been debunked.

Claiming someone raising their hand is a Nazi salute just shows the desperate obsession with manufacturing grievances
You swallow all of that whole...without question. You believe it dont you? Blindly justifying the overall tenor of that comedian and his acceptance by campaign managers, event planners, and audience, for example. Those things never occurred to you?

Just that one example proving your blind bias is enough for me not to waste my time on the others. The sentiment behind the Nazi salute may be "subjective" but there's no doubt that it "looked" just like it. And still the subjects demand it's 'not what it looked like." We ALL can see what it looked like.

When someone parades around their confirmation bias citing smears and deceptions as evidence, they are not to be believed.

Agreed...your post is a perfect example.
 
It’s not the admission of White South Africans than caused the accusation of racism. It’s that admission, coupled with the denial of admission to other, darker skinned refugees already approved for admission. He suspended all refugee admissions — except for these. Add to that Trump’s of other actions and comments (“shit hole countries”), his spreading of false information on Black on White homicide, and there you have it. Who knows what is in his heart, but his discrimination in this case and elsewhere gives rise to the accusations you’re complaining about.
Gosh, a President canceled something approved by their predecessor. Kim Jung Biden canceled the Keystone pipeline on his first day in office. Was that racist? Naw.

Kim Jung Biden’s handlers abused immigration parole allowing millions of unvetted illegal aliens into the country. Trump canceled the continuation of the abuse. Kindly explain how President Trump could control who crossed the border illegally seeking asylum.
 
You swallow all of that whole...without question. You believe it dont you? Blindly justifying the overall tenor of that comedian and his acceptance by campaign managers, event planners, and audience, for example. Those things never occurred to you?
The overall tenor of an insult comedian is insulting humor. Why is that suddenly offensive? Oh wait, Orange Man Bad.
Just that one example proving your blind bias is enough for me not to waste my time on the others.
Not to mention you can't formulate anything approaching a logical rebuttal to the facts presented.
The sentiment behind the Nazi salute may be "subjective" but there's no doubt that it "looked" just like it. And still the subjects demand it's 'not what it looked like." We ALL can see what it looked like.
President Obama, Hillary, and Kamala have all made the same jesture. But without the virtue signaling condemnation. It takes a heavy dose of confirmation bias to claim it's a Nazi salute.
Agreed...your post is a perfect example.
Not hardly. My comment contained factual rebuttals to your parroting talking points. That explains your schoolyard taunt response.
 
The overall tenor of an insult comedian is insulting humor. Why is that suddenly offensive? Oh wait, Orange Man Bad.

Not to mention you can't formulate anything approaching a logical rebuttal to the facts presented.

President Obama, Hillary, and Kamala have all made the same jesture. But without the virtue signaling condemnation. It takes a heavy dose of confirmation bias to claim it's a Nazi salute.

Not hardly. My comment contained factual rebuttals to your parroting talking points. That explains your schoolyard taunt response.

You swallow all of that whole...without question. You believe it dont you? Blindly justifying the overall tenor of that comedian and his acceptance by campaign managers, event planners, and audience, for example. Those things never occurred to you?

Just that one example proving your blind bias is enough for me not to waste my time on the others. The sentiment behind the Nazi salute may be "subjective" but there's no doubt that it "looked" just like it. And still the subjects demand it's 'not what it looked like." We ALL can see what it looked like.
When someone parades around their confirmation bias citing smears and deceptions as evidence, they are not to be believed.

Agreed...your post is a perfect example.
 
DEI is a system of racial quotas. The definition of racism.

Objecting to refugees because of their race is embracing racism.

Still unaware of what an insult comedian like the one at the MSG rally does?

The "very fine people" smear has long been debunked.

Claiming someone raising their hand is a Nazi salute just shows the desperate obsession with manufacturing grievances



When someone parades around their confirmation bias citing smears and deceptions as evidence, they are not to be believed.
People are not objecting to refugees because of their race. Let’s toss it back to you fo an analysis: why do you think Trump stopped all refugees from coming to the US except the white South Africans?
 
Repeating your smear claiming racism and denying "provided they are white" as an allegation of racism doesn't make the race baiting vanish. If as you claim, Trump only favors refugees provided they are white it ought to be reflected in the make up of legal immigrants admitted leading to exclusively white legal immigration.

What "smear campaign" ?

Trump is racist - there is no doubt about that.
 
What "smear campaign" ?

Trump is racist - there is no doubt about that.
What smear campaign? Followed by the false claim Trump is a racist. Classic.
 
Repeating your smear claiming racism and denying "provided they are white" as an allegation of racism doesn't make the race baiting vanish. If as you claim, Trump only favors refugees provided they are white it ought to be reflected in the make up of legal immigrants admitted leading to exclusively white legal immigration.

Trump is guilty of racism, as per the news report regarding immigration I cited in post#165


And I quote: "As the Trump administration faces multiple lawsuits over its rescission of temporary protected status for people of various nationalities who are fleeing legitimate strife in their countries, it’s preparing to roll out the red carpet for a new group it has designated as refugees: white South Africans who say they’ve been discriminated against by their country’s anti-apartheid government."
 
OK, now please define the distinction between "territorial jurisdiction of the US" jurisdiction and "jurisdiction of the US"
I did this already, with two examples and an analogy that show the difference between territorial and complete jurisdiction.

Which of my statements are untrue? Quote them...put up or ...? I'm sure you will prove me wrong if you can.
This one:
What is "complete" jurisdiction? Cited definition for this distinction please? Never heard of it.

That was a lawyer speaking...where is it legally defined? If it's going to be legally determining people's lives, by a judicial body, surely there is an actual legal definition for it. Esp. since many judges have examined the 14th Amendment and citizenship since.
The concept of territorial vs. complete (personal) jurisdiction has been around for a long time, and continues to be influential. Just two years ago an appeals court ruled a judgement against the Palestinian Liberation Organization was invalid -- the law upon which the suit was based could not reach the activities of the PLO because the PLO could not be brought under the jurisdiction of the United States, even though Congress intended to do so with the statute at issue (Fuld v. PLO is currently on appeal the the US Supreme Court, has been argued, but not yet decided). This is is spite of the fact that the PLO has offices in the US (which was the initial basis of the assertion that the US had jurisdiction over them).

Note: Trumball was not a crafter of the 14th A...I found no such substantiation...he was commenting, as a lawyer, on a case using the 14th A as a basis. It was his "legal" opinion. Not a judge's opinion nor did he contribute to the writing of the 14th A, so it does not go to "intent of the 14th A."
I find conflicting sources. Some say he authored only the citizenship clause of the Civil RIghts Act, some say he was instrumental to both. I've stopped citing him as I did in that post, though the sentiment remains the same. A person who certainly did have a hand in the citizenship clause, however, was Senator Jacob Howard of Michigan. His thoughts were even clearer than Trumbull's:
1748709330736.webp


And when US citizens are subject to US jurisdiction out side the US, it's because they are legally citizens of the US :rolleyes:.
Yes. That's the point. They are subject to the complete jurisdiction of the United States, wherever they are.
 
I did this already, with two examples and an analogy that show the difference between territorial and complete jurisdiction.

Refuted. That example failed, and a couple of us showed why. Did you think that just coming back after a several days and typing "yes I did!" would mean anything?

Come on. In any case, either restate stuff in context or just admit you cant let it go and hope that time and distance will make it all go away.

This one:

Yes, because the use of it was new except in the context of this issue in these threads. That was the context of my statement. Look how desperate you are for a gotcha tho...really pathetic and still fails.

The concept of territorial vs. complete (personal) jurisdiction has been around for a long time, and continues to be influential. Just two years ago an appeals court ruled a judgement against the Palestinian Liberation Organization was invalid -- the law upon which the suit was based could not reach the activities of the PLO because the PLO could not be brought under the jurisdiction of the United States, even though Congress intended to do so with the statute at issue (Fuld v. PLO is currently on appeal the the US Supreme Court, has been argued, but not yet decided). This is is spite of the fact that the PLO has offices in the US (which was the initial basis of the assertion that the US had jurisdiction over them).

The PLO "could not be brought under the jurisdiction of the US." It is neither a person or a citizen nor an American org. Just because they have offices in the US means we'd have jurisdiction over the PLO (Holy shit :rolleyes:)

Did you even read the links in your Wiki article? Try reading the link for "personal jurisdiction." :rolleyes:

Thousands of businesses and franchises have American offices, doesnt mean we have jurisdiction over what those parent organizations do in other countries :rolleyes:

Nowhere is "territorial" and "complete" defined in your citation. You are still making crap up.

I find conflicting sources. Some say he authored only the citizenship clause of the Civil RIghts Act, some say he was instrumental to both. I've stopped citing him as I did in that post, though the sentiment remains the same. A person who certainly did have a hand in the citizenship clause, however, was Senator Jacob Howard of Michigan. His thoughts were even clearer than Trumbull's:
View attachment 67572408

That's right, it's not a valid point then.

Yes. That's the point. They are subject to the complete jurisdiction of the United States, wherever they are.

Let me know, in a week or so ;) when you can define complete and partial jurisdictions. Sorry, your interim drive-bys pretty much showed where you're coming from here. Why should I expect honesty or legitimate info now?
 
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territorial and complete jurisdiction.

The concept of territorial vs. complete (personal) jurisdiction has been around for a long time, and continues to be influential… the law upon which the suit was based could not reach the activities of the PLO because the PLO could not be brought under the jurisdiction of the United States, even though Congress intended to do so with the statute at issue (Fuld v. PLO

The concept of “complete jurisdiction” isn’t a legally cognizable jurisdiction whereas Personal Jurisdiction is legally cognizable in U.S. jurisprudence. “Complete jurisdiction” is apparently a phrase conjured and used outside of court decisions, law schools, lawyers and judges.

While in law school I never encountered the phrase “complete jurisdiction,” and that includes the two semester class of Federal Jurisdiction as a 3L. In my now 19 years of practicing law, I’ve yet to encounter any law professor, lawyer, judge, etc., using “complete jurisdiction.” I’m familiar with and learned “complete diversity” in relation to “diversity jurisdiction” for federal jurisdiction, personal jurisdiction (which has 3 sub-categories), subject matter jurisdiction, but not “complete jurisdiction.”

I’ve not encountered a lawyer, judge, Justice, law professor, use “complete jurisdiction” as a reference to or to mean “personal jurisdiction.”

Indeed, the decision of Fuld v PLO by the 2nd Circuit, inundated with the phrases of personal jurisdiction, general and specific jurisdiction, but devoid of your phrase “complete jurisdiction.” See opinion here https://law.justia.com/cases/federal/appellate-courts/ca2/22-76/22-76-2023-09-08.html

This is is spite of the fact that the PLO has offices in the US (which was the initial basis of the assertion that the US had jurisdiction over them).

Ah, but lacking the intimate legal knowledge of the personal jurisdiction test(s) for general and specific jurisdiction as well, you omitted the rationale supporting the conclusion.

General personal jurisdiction refers to, and from a legal perspective asks, inter alia, whether the Defendant has contact or contacts with the jurisdiction, the frequency of those contacts, the nature of their contacts, called “minimum contacts” test. The 2nd. Circuit opined “we concluded that the district court lacked general personal jurisdiction over the defendants “pursuant to the Supreme Court’s recent decision” in Daimler AG v. Bauman, 571 U.S. 117 (2014),because neither defendant’s contacts with the forum were “so constant and pervasive as to render [it] essentially at home” in the United States. Waldman I, (quoting Daimler, 571 U.S. at 122)…We rejected the notion that the defendants could be considered “essentially at home” in this country based on their activities in Washington, D.C., which were “limited to maintaining an office [there], promoting the Palestinian cause in speeches and media appearances, and retaining a lobbying firm.” Id. at 333.Rather, both the PLO and the PA “are ‘at home’ in Palestine, where these entities are headquartered and from where they are directed.”

This didn’t resolve the legal dispute before the 2nd Circuit, as specific personal jurisdiction, which involves the Defendant(s), dispute, forum, with a connection to all three. This too has a contacts inquiry, makes sense since personal jurisdiction tests inquires regarding Defendant(s) contacts. The 2nd Circuit wrote “likewise held that the district court could not properly exercise specific personal jurisdiction over the PLO and the PA, in view of the absence of any “substantial connection” between “the defendants’ suit-related conduct — their role in the six terror attacks at issue — [and] . . . the forum.” We explained that the terrorist attacks themselves took place outside the United States, that “the defendants 10 activities in violation of the ATA occurred outside the United States,” and that none of these acts were “specifically targeted” or “expressly aimed” at the United States.”

I’m unsure whether you are invoking this decision to argue against the position of, those illegally in the country and have children born within the U.S. then those children are U.S. citizens under the relevant provision of the 14th amendment. If you are, those illegally within the U.S. have sufficient contacts with the U.S. unlike those in the Fuld decision.

Interestingly, my prior post is incoherent to you but your non-legal phrase of “complete jurisdiction” of coherent, to you. My prose isn’t the problem.
 
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The idea that one Judge can issue a proper order that affects everyone when there is a rule or law that is obviously unconstitutional is a good one. This allows one Judge to hear the arguments and make a decision. That decision can be appealed, and one Appeals Court is going to hear it. If you still don’t like the answer you can still send it to the Supremes.

The problem with your theory is that there is more than one judge, and they may issue conflicting orders. What then?
 
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