I suppose that it is "factually correct" to say that when "Meaningless Term A" is always used in conjunction with "Meaningless Term B" both "Meaningless Term A" and "Meaningless Term B" are "all in context".
You probably didn't notice it, but I HAVE asked you (repeatedly) to provide your definitions for your self-invented terms.
When a person IS asked to define a term, and when that request has been repeated several times, and then the person who HAS BEEN asked to define the term is told that they have failed to ask for a definition, the questioner is tempted to conclude that the person who WAS asked is either:
- delusional;
*
- babbling;
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- suffering from a massive short term memory deficit;
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- confabulating;
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- lying;
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- intellectually dishonest;
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- mentally unbalanced;
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- unable to think rationally;
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or
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- a combination of two or more of the above.
When a person advances as a "justification" of their position ("Statement A") that "Those who chose not to work SHOULD BE paid." an authority that states ("Statement B") "Those who chose not to work SHOULD NOT BE paid.", another person reading those statements would be tempted to conclude that anyone who would believe that actually constituted a "justification" would fall into the same category as someone who, after being repeatedly asked to define some self-invented term accuses the person who has been asking them to define those self-invented terms of ever having asked what those self-invented terms mean.