because it is both unconstitutional and an idiotic idea. Some wealth does not generate any income,
While I agree with the second sentence (to some extent [after all, "land" doesn't actually generate "income" but you can sure use it as security to obtain loans that you CAN use to generate "income"), I have a lot of problems with your first sentence.
Please provide a specific reference to that portion of the US constitution that states that the government can NOT "tax wealth".
To get you started, please show me where the words "except on wealth" occur in
Article I, Section 8, Clause 1:
The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
As I read that Clause, there is only one exception and two qualifications on the power of Congress to levy taxes, those being:
1. (exception) articles exported from any State may not be taxed at all;
2. (qualification 1) direct taxes must be levied in accordance with the rule of apportionment
and
3. (qualification 2) indirect taxes must be levied in accordance with the rule of uniformity.
As I understand it, the courts have emphasized the broad reach of this taxing power power by holding (at various times) that
1. it reaches every subject,
2. it is exhaustive
and/or
3. it embraces every conceivable power of taxation.
Admittedly, the courts have gone against these generalizations and curtailed (by judicial decision) the subject matter of taxation, the manner in which taxes are imposed, and/or the objects for which they may be levied - WHEN THE VESTED FINANCIAL INTERESTS OF THE FINANCIAL ELITE WERE THREATENED.