that while laughing at the people calculating children and the slaves themselves in
their numbers.
And to be clear I'm not saying the 2% number is wrong, I'm just asking the simple question of why are you calculating children and slaves themselves in your numbers?
There's no moving of goal posts. I'm asking the same question I do in that post as I do above in this one.
Are my numbers wrong? What are you even crying about? I can accept, with much amusement, that only 2% of the entire population of America owned slaves when you're calculating children and women and slaves. What's making you so frail about the fact that when you calculate how many white families in the south owned slaves the answer is 1 in every 4.

Both of these numbers are true.