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Yes, I asked if something could be done in the future. You then asked who had had it done to them in the past.
Your response did not address the question I asked. It addresses something that I did not ask. That is a strawman fallacy.
Rephrase the question. I am not understanding what you are asking. I suspect that you are asking me about things that go beyond the point of my argument.
And the slaves violations of bodily autonomy were done legal circumstances as well.
And if a status can be given, then why can it not be removed? If we were able to say that blacks were not persons, then what, for example, stops us from saying that women are not persons and thus it's not a violation of bodily autonomy to force them to gestate?
No one has the right to use another person's body or bodily resources for their or another's benefit. So the unborn does not trump the woman's rights and autonomy. Your example is an issue of self defense, not acquisition of bodily resources. Your example can also be applied to gestation: pregnancy is inherently risky to a woman's health. So by your example, a woman has the right to an abortion to protect herbody and health.I disagree with this statement. It is quite possible. But it has to be under the recognition that certain rights trump other rights in specific conditions. If a man is trying to beat me senseless, his right to life holds no bearing, as I can kill him if that is what it takes to stop him from beating me like that. My right of bodily autonomy overrides his right to life in that situation. Thus it would be the same for the woman even if the unborn had a right to life.
Where did I say that?All true. So then you agree that intentional infringement upon by another on one's bodily autonomy is irrelevant.
Intention does play a factor. For example, intention can be the difference between a charge of murder or a charge of manslaughter or whatever.If the argument is that only intentional infringement is necessary, then that infringement would not apply to the unborn since there is no intent there. As we argue often, there is no brain present during the period of development where the vast majority of abortions are done for any intent to be present. Intent is irrelevant, when it comes to bodily autonomy. I can factor into the response to the violation, but a lack of it does not excuse the violation nor warrant the continuation of the violation.
Which question was that?You didn't answer the other question.
Personhood is a legal definition and determination. Granting rights to laves does not infringe on anyone else's own rights and autonomy. Granting rights to the unborn does.So personhood is a subjective value, determined only by what the law says? Obviously the law and the Constitution determine that blacks were not initially people. What criteria does the COnstitution provide for determining personhood? How would we, for example, determine personhood in a non-human?
So why can't that status be legally changed for the unborn?
Yes, and?But that third person in the example already had personhood and rights and all.
How so? I am not infringing on anyone's rights? That's like saying I'm infringing on someone's rights if I refuse to donate blood to them. You can see how stupid that is, right? No one has a right to my body or bodily resources without my consent.And yet your bodily autonomy still overrode all of that. So why would that be any different for an unborn?
quote this.
Who's "personhood" was removed?
I asked you to answer mine first, so address mine first.
Past tense
So then it is possible to legally remove an individual's personhood, or even that of a group, correct?
I don't think that I can because your question runs on a false premise. You specifically claimed that the unborn having rights would violate the rights of the one they are in. But this is patently false.
If a born person with rights cannot violate your rights, specifically that of bodily autonomy, then why are you assuming that the unborn can violate those rights? Without you addressing this premise issue to your question, I do not believe that there can be an answer.
No one has the right to use another person's body or bodily resources for their or another's benefit. So the unborn does not trump the woman's rights and autonomy.
Your example is an issue of self defense, not acquisition of bodily resources. Your example can also be applied to gestation: pregnancy is inherently risky to a woman's health. So by your example, a woman has the right to an abortion to protect herbody and health.
Where did I say that?
Intention does play a factor. For example, intention can be the difference between a charge of murder or a charge of manslaughter or whatever.
Which question was that?
Per what argument? What makes a homicide murder or not?Abortion is not murder either.
Personhood is a legal definition and determination. Granting rights to laves does not infringe on anyone else's own rights and autonomy. Granting rights to the unborn does.
Yes, and?
How so? I am not infringing on anyone's rights? That's like saying I'm infringing on someone's rights if I refuse to donate blood to them. You can see how stupid that is, right? No one has a right to my body or bodily resources without my consent.
Because you asked me this, out of the blue:
Please prove this statement, in bold, is wrong.
No, the poster is correct and isn't assuming that born or unborn can violate those rights.Past tense
I don't think that I can because your question runs on a false premise. You specifically claimed that the unborn having rights would violate the rights of the one they are in. But this is patently false. If a born person with rights cannot violate your rights, specifically that of bodily autonomy, then why are you assuming that the unborn can violate those rights? Without you addressing this premise issue to your question, I do not believe that there can be an answer.
Exactly. That is future tense. It is asking if it can be done. You responded in the past tense asking when it had be done. These are two separate things.
You quoted the proof with the very next quote line. A born person who violates your bodily autonomy cannot use their right to life to prevent you from ending that violation. If in ending the violation, you cause their termination, their right to life doesn't prevent you from doing so. Your right to bodily autonomy overrides their right to life. So if that is the case for the born, then the unborn would not be able to use their right to life (on the presumption that they had such) to override your bodily autonomy.
But if she didn't and doesn't consent, or withdraws that consent, it is violating them.
It's the same problem as consensual sexual intercourse and rape - the only thing differentiating these is the woman's consent.
No person has ever had a right to someone else's body, or a right to use that body for any purpose without the consent of that person. That's why there are consent forms for much medical stuff, too. It's why no one can force you to give blood for a transfusion or a bodily organ for a transplant, even if it would save a life, and even if the one saved were one of your kids.
I did not respond that way. I asked you to clarify the question, period.
Future tenseSo then it is possible to legally remove an individual's personhood, or even that of a group, correct?
Past tense.Who's "personhood" was removed?
The bold is not something I've ever written or implied. Other people make that argument.
The unborn cannot act, cannot form intent, has no volition.
As such, since I dont consider it equal to the born (that is not all the reasons), I do not ever find it should take priority legally, morally, or practically, over the woman carrying it.
I do however, discuss...as I did the govt or society acting on the unborn and if done without the woman's consent, violating many of her rights. And you completely ignored this. The govt cannot protect the purported rights of the unborn equally with the rights of the woman carrying it.
Now...I do not wish to follow up on this line of conversation here. Feel free to start a thread if you want to. I was involved in a conversation with another poster addressing the morality of abortion...which we agreed would not address rights or law. (except when a right and harm/morality may overlap).
Wow, demand proof for the Creator you claim is irrelevant. Then, falsely claim the Constitution "acknowledges" the separation of church and state. The DoI expressly states the Creator is the source of human rights. Cite the Constitutional text specifing separation of church and state. On the one hand you deny the explicit words of the DoI while on the other you claim something that isn't in the Constitution. It's a house of cards attempt to rationalize taking the lives of the unborn.Prove there's a "creator" first! Not that it's relevant, as the Constitution does acknowledge the separation of church and state. Besides, the DoI is worded in a way to appeal to the King of England as head of the Church, and only establishes our sovereignty as a nation and nothing more. Bottom line, the unborn do not have any rights per the constitution and federal law, no matter how much you want to disingenuously pretend otherwise.
If we are being fair, of those, the “pregnant person” term is pretty stupid and Portlandia sounding.I could be wrong, but I feel like we have usually heard the sex assigned at birth.
One of Trump's propaganda tricks is repetition. Perhaps they decided to change it to who they are at the time of conception here in an effort to get it in the everyday lexicon.
I just noticed they are red flagging the term "assigned at birth."
And, as you'd expect, the New Republic is there to flog on that hysteria, pouring yet more gas on that fire.The left's hysteria is mind numbing.
How so if 'Creator' is mentioned? Clearly you have no proof.Wow, demand proof for the Creator you claim is irrelevant.
What's false about it? The Constitution establishes a separation of church and state. Simple fact.Then, falsely claim the Constitution "acknowledges" the separation of church and state.
So? It has already been explained why and why it's irrelevant.The DoI expressly states the Creator is the source of human rights.
The 1st Amendment, as well as being affirmed by the Founding Fathers and the SCOTUS.Cite the Constitutional text specifing separation of church and state.
I know the words on the DoI. They simply do not mena what you think they mean. And I'm not trying to rationalize anything. Who said I needed to. I simply stated facts.On the one hand you deny the explicit words of the DoI while on the other you claim something that isn't in the Constitution. It's a house of cards attempt to rationalize taking the lives of the unborn.
No belief either. Also simple fact, which you have yet to refute.No question you believe unborn children have no right to life. What other forms of human life do you believe can be liquidated at will?
At leat you agree the unborn is violating one's bodily autonomy.Exactly. The unborn has no intent, and yet it still violates the bodily autonomy. Therefore, intent is irrelevant
They do not. As you said, they are violating another's bodily autonomy and take their bodily resources. Therefore they can be removed at the behest of the one that is being occupied and parasitically fed on.Bingo! Just as you would be able to cause the death of the one who was taking your bodily resources, despite them having no intent to do so, regardless of any right to life that they might have, so too can a woman terminate the unborn, who has no intent to violate, even IF (with no implication that they do) they, the unborn, had a right to life.
I am beginning to wonder wht your point is? You seem hung up on intent.In the statement that that line responded to, and again in the above two statements. You acknowledged it when you stated that you still had the right to cause the termination of one who was taking your bodily resources, even though they had no intent to.
The better question is, was consent given before bodily resources was obtained? It doesn't matter what happens to the "other."Granted, in those circumstances. But in my example, did the intent of the one who was receiving your bodily resources matter? Or did you still have the right to end that use of your bodily resources, even if i meant the termination of the other, despite no intent by the other?
It does not and should not. If a pregnant woman does not consent to have her body used for gestation or withdraws consent at anytime, then the unborn should be removed.How so? How would the unborn having rights provide them with an ability that the born do not have? If that third person in the example could not have their right to life override your bodily autonomy, then how could the unborn's (presumed for the question) right to life do it?
Already addressed.You have it backwards. I am not saying that you infringed on someone's rights. I am saying that their infringement on your bodily autonomy is not negated by their right to life. You acknowledged that for the example. And even though that third person didn't even know they were taking of your bodily resources, you still had the ability to override their right to life, by stopping their use of your bodily resources, even though their termination was 100% guaranteed. Now if that born person's right to life cannot override your bodily autonomy rights, then how could an unborn's do so, if they had it?
No one is making you respond. As such, my first response to you was over you talking about the legal status of slaves (#103). I came in on a statement of legal issue.
Now...I do not wish to follow up on this line of conversation here. Feel free to start a thread if you want to. I was involved in a conversation with another poster addressing the morality of abortion...which we agreed would not address rights or law. (except when a right and harm/morality may overlap).
At leat you agree the unborn is violating one's bodily autonomy.
They do not. As you said, they are violating another's bodily autonomy and take their bodily resources. Therefore they can be removed at the behest of the one that is being occupied and parasitically fed on.
I am beginning to wonder wht your point is? You seem hung up on intent.
The better question is, was consent given before bodily resources was obtained? It doesn't matter what happens to the "other."
It does not and should not. If a pregnant woman does not consent to have her body used for gestation or withdraws consent at anytime, then the unborn should be removed.
Roe was just fine. Bodily autonomy might have been a stronger foundation for it.I've never said otherwise. In fact, my position is the RvW was wrong in that it used medical privacy as its basis instead of bodily autonomy.
It's not about 'what if,' but rather what is.Who does not what? If you mean the unborn does not have a right to life, I didn't claim that. I said that IF they has a right to life, it would no more override bodily autonomy than a born person's right to life would.
No, I did not. I said intention can be a part of determining criminal severity, using the aforementioned murder charge as an example. Pregnancy and abortion is not a criminal offense, even if some states try to make it such. In a pregnancy situation, the only "intention" that matters is the woman's intent to continue a pregnancy or not.You made a point that something was illegal because it was an intentional infringement.
Again, irrelevant. It's the woman's intention in the situation that matters.Such an argument leaves an implication that if the infringement is unintentional, then it is not illegal. Ironically you later make the comparison of murder vs manslaughter. The lack of intent didn't change the fact that the deceased right to life was infringed upon and that the result is still illegal and convictable. Basically, with the use of intent of infringement, it left open an argument that because the unborn has no intent it cannot be in violation of her bodily autonomy.
Yes. Is the woman consenting, i.e. choosing to remain pregnant or not?I would say not really, given that consent can be withdrawn. The question is, is consent currently present?
No. I do not see how you could even come to that reasoning, considering I never argued that.So just to be clear, you are agreeing that an unborn could have a right to life and that still would not cause violation of the women's bodily autonomy rights, yes?
Murder applies to persons with rights and autonomy. The unborn are neither.You still haven't answered the question on what makes abortion not murder
What's legal isn't really relevant, because what's legal is specifically what I want to change. Abortion should be generally illegal for the same reason murder should be: it deliberately takes the life of an innocent.
Sorry for the interruption:
Denying the medical procedure comes at the expense of another individual, overriding her consent to her own life, health, pain and suffering, bodily autonomy, and moral agency. It doesnt just affect her having a heartbeat...that 9 months of sickness, debilitation, the risks of financial hardship for her and dependents, food on the table, roof over heads, inability to fulfill her obligations to others...all affect the entire rest of her life and other people.
Only the individual woman (and her dr.) know these risks and circumstances. How are strangers or the govt. justified in imposing their will on that woman, imposing those risks and harm on her and others?
Is it your view that humanity's goal should be merely that "both woman and unborn survive the birth with a heartbeat?" No matter if one or both will be tied to a ventilator? Be severely sick, defective, in pain, non-functioning mentally or physically, etc?
Do you choose quantity over quality of life?
If so, IMO that view dehumanizes both woman and unborn...reducing both to nothing but physiological functions...their humanity lost. Do you see this as well? If not, please explain.
Yes, it's called withdrawal of or comfort care measures.Can you kill a newborn to avert pain and suffering?
Those are certainly concerns some might have and reasons why one might choose abortion. Who are you to decide for someone what is or is not justified?To avert financial hardship for yourself or your dependents? To avert food insecurity or the loss of your home? No. These concerns don't justify killing someone.
There is no "someone" killed in an abortion and neither does abortion negatively affect society in the least.When it comes to killing someone, all of society is justified in imposing its will.
Applicable to persons, not the unborn. Although, one could argue abortion is a form of self defense.That's why self-defense claims are scrutinized even in slam-dunk examples. You're demanding the power to kill with impunity. That's a right no citizen has in any other context.
Says who? What authority determines that?Humanity's goal should be to never deliberately kill innocents.
Except that's not how ventilators work in the real world.If both are tied to a ventilator by our fighting for both lives, that's a better outcome than if we murdered one to save the other. If they are sick but alive, that's a better outcome than if one were healthy by murdering the other.
That's a matter of opinion. Ask the terminaly ill or those suffering or with intractable pain which is really better.Life is better than death.
When it comes to the unborn, only the pregnant woman gets to make decisions.Yes, because quality of life is subjective, and we aren't making the decision about our own lives, but someone else's.
"Prospective?" So you're saying it's not an actual "life" yet. Glad you can admit that.If a man's quality of life is too low in his estimation, he is free to take his own life. Looking at another's prospective quality of life, finding it wanting, and killing them without their consent is the business of Nazis and other barbarians.
There is no child in an abortion. So your point, whatever that is, is moot!I do not see this. Is the child's humanity better preserved by killing it?
Yes, it's called withdrawal of or comfort care measures.
Those are certainly concerns some might have and reasons why one might choose abortion. Who are you to decide for someone what is or is not justified?
There is no "someone" killed in an abortion and neither does abortion negatively affect society in the least.
Applicable to persons, not the unborn. Although, one could argue abortion is a form of self defense.
Says who? What authority determines that?
Except that's not how ventilators work in the real world.
That's a matter of opinion. Ask the terminaly ill or those suffering or with intractable pain which is really better.
When it comes to the unborn, only the pregnant woman gets to make decisions.
"Prospective?" So you're saying it's not an actual "life" yet. Glad you can admit that.
There is no child in an abortion. So your point, whatever that is, is moot!
Can you kill a newborn to avert pain and suffering? To avert financial hardship for yourself or your dependents? To avert food insecurity or the loss of your home? No. These concerns don't justify killing someone.
When it comes to killing someone, all of society is justified in imposing its will.
That's why self-defense claims are scrutinized even in slam-dunk examples. You're demanding the power to kill with impunity. That's a right no citizen has in any other context.
Humanity's goal should be to never deliberately kill innocents.
If both are tied to a ventilator by our fighting for both lives, that's a better outcome than if we murdered one to save the other. If they are sick but alive, that's a better outcome than if one were healthy by murdering the other.
Life is better than death.
Yes, because quality of life is subjective, and we aren't making the decision about our own lives, but someone else's. If a man's quality of life is too low in his estimation, he is free to take his own life. Looking at another's prospective quality of life, finding it wanting, and killing them without their consent is the business of Nazis and other barbarians.
I do not see this. Is the child's humanity better preserved by killing it?
Wow, demand proof for the Creator you claim is irrelevant. Then, falsely claim the Constitution "acknowledges" the separation of church and state. The DoI expressly states the Creator is the source of human rights. Cite the Constitutional text specifing separation of church and state. On the one hand you deny the explicit words of the DoI while on the other you claim something that isn't in the Constitution. It's a house of cards attempt to rationalize taking the lives of the unborn.
No question you believe unborn children have no right to life. What other forms of human life do you believe can be liquidated at will?
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