I understand what you are saying.
But as I have attempted to point out in this thread.
By using proper grammar/English language rules?
Not according to the framers In their own words: "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed" So the "security" of a free state is dependent on the existence of a militia. Wouldn't that mean...
debatepolitics.com
Something the Founding Fathers were (obviously) ENORMOUSLY more skilled at than most people today are.
It is obvious that the portion: 'of the people to keep and bear Arms'?
Are one/two prepositional phrases.
That means they CANNOT be the subject of the Amendment.
The SCOTUS should know this.
But they either ignore the fact or are unaware of it.
The text is clear in this regard.
The Second Amendment is about the Militia...NOT the masses having guns at home to protect themselves from burglars.
The SCOTUS had no business interpreting it.
Now?
What is a 'well regulated Militia' is vague (I assume the FF's intended that to be determined in other rules/laws).
But, the
10 U.S. Code § 246 - Militia: composition and classes clarifies that.
www.law.cornell.edu
Thus...the Second Amendment is actually not vague.
But it DOES require the reader to be well trained in the English language.
Something few Americans are today.
In my opinion, the SCOTUS broke their oath(s) in interpreting the 2'nd Amendment in the way they have.
ESPECIALLY Scalia.
BTW - I think you are doing a fab job in this thread.
Making cogent points and keeping your cool.