Now you've posed a dilemma for me, my friend. Should I waste my time? Can I control my derision?
Should I?
Wow. Just,
wow!
The
richness of that excrement is extraordinary! I admit though, that it is difficult to discern whether you are being deliberately obtuse, are that incredibly unsophisticated, or just so indoctrinated that you can't recognize just how idiotic those statements are. Let's test that out, shall we?
"
Why are the taxes you pay and their purpose so hard for you to understand?" Oh, good lord. Do I start with the basic, or delve right into the details of taxation infrastructure (income, excise, VAT, sales, capital gains, gifts and estates)? Clearly I better start simple:
Taxes are the revenues that pay for government services. At its basic level (which I hope you can follow), a government establishes a tax base to pay for deemed necessary services. (Which leads to this tautology: reduce taxes, reduce services.) To
maximize available revenues, one must go where the taxes will be
most effective - i.e., them's that's got. Poor people pay less
income taxes because they are indexed to
income. "Rich people" have more disposable income/assets, so can better support government services, with less untoward effects to themselves. Here's a picture to help:
View attachment 67259442
(Keeping up here?) Moreover, they have had more opportunity to avail themselves of government resources for their benefit.
Get more,
pay more. Simple, no? Oh, I think I've lost you...
"Do you honestly believe that allowing the rich to keep more of what they earn widens the wage gap?"
Of course I do! How can it not? It's as plain as the nose on your face (that you seem so desperately to be trying to look down. Unfortunately, you're looking the wrong way.) I did notice the subtle (unintended?) mixing of apples and oranges in the query, though: i.e., rich people have "earnings" but peons have "wages" - It's not a wage gap, it's an
income gap. Simple, basic math demonstrates it.
Income Inequality in the United States: "In the United States, the income gap between the rich and everyone else has been growing markedly, by every major statistical measure, for more than 30 years."
Most of the "gap" is the result of wealth accumulation, and tax preference,
not productive "earnings" (that's why they're called "passive" investments). The more that accumulation is allowed, the less incentive to
produce and (here's where wages do come in) the less incentive to correct wage differentials. After all, investors bet on short term market gains which are produced by CEOs (that are, correspondingly, grossly overcompensated) and manipulation of the books, rather than efficiency of production. Wages actually compete with that process, so keeping them down improves investor relations! Thus, "Productivity has increased at a relatively consistent rate since 1948. But the wages of American workers have not, since the 1970s, kept up with this rising productivity. Worker hourly compensation has flat-lined since the mid-1970s, increasing just 23 percent from 1979 to 2017, while worker productivity has increased 138 percent over the same time period." Where did all that productivity
go? Oh....