• This is a political forum that is non-biased/non-partisan and treats every person's position on topics equally. This debate forum is not aligned to any political party. In today's politics, many ideas are split between and even within all the political parties. Often we find ourselves agreeing on one platform but some topics break our mold. We are here to discuss them in a civil political debate. If this is your first visit to our political forums, be sure to check out the RULES. Registering for debate politics is necessary before posting. Register today to participate - it's free!

State laws that violate the US Constitution

Somerville

DP Veteran
Joined
Apr 29, 2012
Messages
17,873
Reaction score
8,362
Location
On an island. Not that one!
Gender
Undisclosed
Political Leaning
Socialist
Article VI, third paragraph of the Constitution

Arkansas, Article 19, Section 1:
No person who denies the being of a God shall hold any office in the civil departments of this State, nor be competent to testify as a witness in any Court.

Maryland, Article 37:
That no religious test ought ever to be required as a qualification for any office of profit or trust in this State, other than a declaration of belief in the existence of God; nor shall the Legislature prescribe any other oath of office than the oath prescribed by this Constitution.

Mississippi, Article 14, Section 265:
No person who denies the existence of a Supreme Being shall hold any office in this state.

North Carolina, Article 6, Section 8
The following persons shall be disqualified for office: Any person who shall deny the being of Almighty God.

South Carolina, Article 17, Section 4:
No person who denies the existence of a Supreme Being shall hold any office under this Constitution.

Tennessee, Article 9, Section 2:
No person who denies the being of God, or a future state of rewards and punishments, shall hold any office in the civil department of this state.

Texas, Article 1, Section 4:
No religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office, or public trust, in this State; nor shall any one be excluded from holding office on account of his religious sentiments, provided he acknowledge the existence of a Supreme Being.


Isn't acknowledging "the existence of a Supreme Being" a religious test? Under these state constitutions, it would be legal for a Muslim (oh the horror!) to be elected but not an atheist or a polytheist. Does anyone really think that would be acceptable under the Constitution?
 

It appears that we are a nation based on religion, just not a particular flavor or sect of it. It is also interesting that the 1st amendment seemed to intend to exempt the states as the wording "congress shall pass no law to..." is far different from the wording of the 2nd amendemt "the right of the people to... shall not be infringed". The 1st appears to apply only to the federal gov't, while the 2nd clearly applies to ALL levels of gov't. ;-)
 


Are you saying that the phrase "any office or public trust under the United States" only applies to offices in the federal government? Do you think it is Constitutionally acceptable to bar atheists from public office?

By the way - Article VI is part of the original Constitution, you know - the bit that was passed before the Bill of Rights were added. You might also read the Article, particularly the phrase "the Members of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial Officers, both of the United States and of the several States", a phrase which at least to me indicates the authors of the Constitution intended for it to apply to the States and not just the federal government.
 
Last edited:
Are you saying that the phrase "any office or public trust under the United States" only applies to offices in the federal government? Do you think it is Constitutionally acceptable to bar atheists from public office?

No I do not, but let us remember that the 1st amendment trumps that phrase. Does it not?
 
No I do not, but let us remember that the 1st amendment trumps that phrase. Does it not?


No it does not, it adds stipulations, restricting the actions of Congress without removing the initial statement which applies to the "several states". All of the first ten amendments are 'additive' to the original requirements found in the Constitution with more precise stipulations as to the authority of Congress and the federal government as a whole.
 
Why do the selection of states not suprise me?
 

If this applied to the States, then why are their consitutions unchanged?
 
If this applied to the States, then why are their consitutions unchanged?

Simply because the states have not tried to enforce the provisions, the last time it was tried was following the election of Cecil Bothwell to the Asheville, NC city council in 2009.

The provisions have probably not been removed from the various state constitutions due to the ever-present possibility of religious nut cases acting in a bad way. The various constitutional provisions were declared invalid by two Supreme Court decision back in the days of flagrant liberalism on the bench (that's sarcasm by the way)
TORCASO v. WATKINS, 367 U.S. 488 (1961) and CANTWELL v. STATE OF CONNECTICUT, 310 U.S. 296 (1940)

from the Torcaso decision from the Cantwell decision
In a more recent case the Supreme Court of South Carolina told the state that it could not prevent an atheist from becoming a notary public
Silverman v. Campbell, et al.
 
Interesting that the belief in a God is so important to many even though most total psycho nut-jobs in the world who have ravaged societies and slaughtered a multitude of innocent people have done so under the name of their Godly backed beliefs.
 
Interesting that the belief in a God is so important to many even though most total psycho nut-jobs in the world who have ravaged societies and slaughtered a multitude of innocent people have done so under the name of their Godly backed beliefs.

There is no need for this here.
 
Are we to understand, that if you considered there to be a "Need for this Here", it would then be acceptable?

We're having a good discussion right now, do you have a problem with that?
 

Nonsense. Amendments, by definition, alter by either adding, changing or deleting parts of the original text of the constitution. The first 10 amendments are no different than the next 17 in that respect, some of the amendments even modify other amendments as well as the original base document.
 

What is your legal evidence that the 1st amendment overrules this requirement in the Constitution? Let me show you some precedence that it took me a few minutes to find on wikipedia .

Silverman v. Campbell - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


Torcaso v. Watkins - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia



So even if the First amendment overrules the requirement mentioned in the OP(it doesn't), the SCOTUS has ruled on multiple occasions that these kinds of things violate the 1st amendment anyway. There you're argument is irrelevant
 

What? Your own "legal evidence" supports my position as ALL of these cases cite the 1st amendment as well as confirm it overrides even the OP cited federal requirement in the U.S. constitituion the important part (that I have copied) from YOUR last SCOTUS decision noted follows: {...neither a State nor the Federal Government can constitutionally force a person "to profess a belief or disbelief in any religion."}
 
Last edited:

The language you quoted actually alludes to the technical reason why the first amendment (and most of the Bill of Rights) applies to the states. I've put the important part in bold.
It's referencing a concept called incorporation. I've posted the wiki link below, but the basic idea is that the due process clause of the fourteenth amendment includes the basic liberties provided in the first 8 amendments in the bill of rights. The first case to discuss this concept was Twining v New Jersey, 211 U.S. 78 (1908)

Here's the wiki:

Incorporation of the Bill of Rights - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
I believe that this is one of those red flag laws and by that I mean those sort of laws that came out when the automobile was new and sharing the road with horse and buggies. Those laws are not in effect.
 
If our rights come from our Creator, as recognized in our founding document, and a person holding office does not recognize our Creator, how can they recognize the rights? What they view as the source of our rights would conflict with where our founding document says they originate from.

Seems like a conflict of interest to me.
 
I believe that this is one of those red flag laws and by that I mean those sort of laws that came out when the automobile was new and sharing the road with horse and buggies. Those laws are not in effect.

Is that in reference to my post, or the OP?
 


What, in your opinion, is "our founding document"? There is no mention of a "Creator" in the Constitution



also your T. Jefferson quote is a fake one and appears to be a creation of the internets
 
What, in your opinion, is "our founding document"? There is no mention of a "Creator" in the Constitution



also your T. Jefferson quote is a fake one and appears to be a creation of the internets

The Constitution is not our founding document.

also dig around on the internet enough you will someone that say something is fake.
 
Last edited:
Maybe you should read a bit more

Wow a webpage!

I notice it does not include the Articles of Confederation. Why not? Hmm.

The Federalist papers are part of our founding documents? The Bill of Rights?

How did any of those documents 'Found' our nation? Sorry, that is rhetorical and not fair. None but the Declaration of Independence did.
 
Last edited:

yes a "webpage" with the original documents for you to read

The Articles of Confederation were superseded by the Constitution, the little that was found to work in the Articles was included in the Constitution, most of it was thrown out.

Federalist Papers are seen as "founding documents" by most historians, maybe not by those who choose to ignore their relevance and frequent citation at times of political strife.

The documents listed did 'found' this nation, for without them their would be no United States of America.

The Declaration of Independence was a declaration of war and rebellion with little in it that has become law in these United States. It did not 'found' this nation in any legalistic understanding of foundation.

You cite the beginning of the second paragraph in the Declaration as 'proof' of the Founding Fathers intentions and beliefs, yet for some reason there is zero mention of any Creator in the Constitution, instead we have the 3rd paragraph of Article VI which tells us there will be no religious tests for political office.

It just might be that those who created this nation had a much closer experience of state-supported churches and said churches interference in the political process than any of those who today babble on about this "christian nation". Maybe that is why they kept religion out of the actual founding documents, they knew how bad things could be.


oh yeah - and your Jefferson quote is still a fake
 
Cookies are required to use this site. You must accept them to continue using the site. Learn more…