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Residents get 6 votes each in suburban NY election(edited)

roughdraft274 said:
The ruling wasn't that Hispanics get more votes. It was that everyone gets more votes.
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Yes... predicated on the idea that the legitimate outcome of legal elections violates the law. Absurd on its face. Imgaine if we changed an election procedure with the expressed purpose of getting a while male elected.

Election law is there to make sure that everyone has the ability to vote freely everyone's ballot is counted according to the same set of standards - the OUTCOME of the electiuon isn;t its concern in any way shape or form.
 
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This is obviously an ACORN district.
 
American said:
This is obviously an ACORN district.
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Ooh, I have a vague conspiracy theory too:
The CIA did it in a plot to poison our drinking water.
 

You make a good point here. I need to take a very good look at the Voting Rights Act. From what I can tell so far it was done under the 15th amendment. What I do know is the 15th amendment has nothing in it that should allow for the actions that were taken, because nobodies vote was being denied except for maybe illegal immigrants. Which leads me to question if the Voting Rights Act itself is unconstitutional if it was what they used to justify these actions. I'll try to take a look soon and see if I can find out what part of the Voting Rights Act they are using to do this. Thanks for the correction to my previous post.
 
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One thing that the VRA does NOT do is give ANYONE the power to declare that the legitimate result of a legal election violates the Constitution, OR allow judges (or anyone else) to create election law that has the intent to favor a given result for any election.
 
... I still think that this 6 vote thing wouldn't even accomplish this goal of getting more latinos elected. Seriously, who casts votes that spread out among several candidates? That defeats the entire purpose of your vote!
 
Deuce said:
... I still think that this 6 vote thing wouldn't even accomplish this goal of getting more latinos elected. Seriously, who casts votes that spread out among several candidates? That defeats the entire purpose of your vote!
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Let me state yet again that election law is NEVER supposed to have an intent to get more/less of ANYONE elected.
 
Goobieman said:
Let me state yet again that election law is NEVER supposed to have an intent to get more/less of ANYONE elected.
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Argue that with Scalia and Thomas. Those dirty liberals.

If the judge finds that the current method disenfranchises certain groups, they can take actions to remedy the situation.
 
Deuce said:
Ooh, I have a vague conspiracy theory too:
The CIA did it in a plot to poison our drinking water.
Click to expand...

You didn't get my humor, sorry.
 
roughdraft274 said:
Argue that with Scalia and Thomas. Those dirty liberals.
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It doesn't matter WHO says so - creating election law that intentionally favors the election of --anyone-- absolutely and positively runs against the entire idea of 'fair' electiions.

If we're going to handicap elections, why bother with them at all?
 

First, the fact that Scalia said that the law as written would require one thing doesn't mean that he's saying the law is a good idea.

Second, Holder v. Hall reversed the lower court's attempt to create a remedy under Sec. 2 of the VRA.
 
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